IBPS Clerk Main (8th Oct 2022)-3009

Download PDF
IBPS(Clerical) Exam (abhipedia)
Prev. Year Tests-IBPSCl
IBPS Clerk Main (8th Oct 2022) (Test Code: 3009)

In June 2022, who launched new portal NIRYAT (National Import-Export Record for Yearly Analysis of Trade)?

  1. Amit Shah 

  2. Ram Nath Kovind 

  3. Narendra Modi 

  4. Piyush Goyal

  5. None of the above

Which Schedule of the Constitution provides for Anti-Defection Law?

  1. 10th 

  2. 7 th

  3. 3 rd 

  4. 1 st

  5. None of the above

How many diseases are covered under National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme?

  1. 4

  2. 5

  3. 6

  4. 7

  5. None of the above 

What is MFLOPS?

  1. It is used to measure the state of the CPU. 

  2. It is used to measure the speed of CPU. 

  3. It is a memory unit. 

  4. It is used to measure memory access time. 

  5. None of the above

In July 2022, Scientists working with the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) have discovered ________ subatomic particles never seen before.

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5

  5. None of the above

______ is a short-term unsecured promissory note issued by reputed business organisations at a price lower than its face value and redeemable at par.

  1. Treasury bill

  2. Commercial paper 

  3. Certificate of deposit 

  4. Promissory note 

  5. None of the above

Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified from being a member of a legislative assembly if s/he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person is disqualified from being a member of a legislative assembly if s/he has failed to lodge an account of his/her election expenses within the time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.  Only 2.

  2. Only

  3. Both 1 and 2 

  4. Neither 1 nor 2 

  5. None of the above

Which of the following department is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs)? 

  1. Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND)

  2. Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) 

  3. Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) 

  4. The Department of Financial Services (DFS)

  5. None of the above

RBI (RBI) on August 9, 2021, under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) has extended mortgage-free loans to self-help groups of ten lakhs. has been increased from _______. 

  1. twelve lakh 

  2. sixteen lakh

  3. fourteen lakh 

  4. twenty lakh 

  5. None of the above

Consider the following statements regarding Cryptocurrencies. 1. It is a digital currency in which encryption techniques are used to regulate the generation of units of currency and verify the transfer of funds, operating independently of a central bank. 2. Supreme Court had allowed banks and financial institutions to reinstate services related to cryptocurrencies by setting aside the RBI’s 2018 circular that had prohibited them based on the ground of “proportionality”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only 

  2. 2 only 

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

  5. None of the above

When is the International Day of Democracy observed?

  1. 13 September

  2. 14 September

  3. 15 September 

  4. 16 September 

  5. None of the above

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) recently announced that no need to submit______________separately in order to have new annuity products of National Pension Scheme (NPS). 

  1. Digital Life Certificate 

  2. Proposal Form 

  3. Health Certificate

  4. Police Verification Certificate

  5. Salary Slip

Which regulatory body in India has unveiled a rupee settlement system for international trade in July 2022? 

  1. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) 

  2. Competition Commission of India (CCI)

  3. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

  4. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 

  5. None of the above/More than one of the above.

ON July 19, Four entities of the eight that commenced testing of their products in the second cohort under the ____________’s regulatory sandbox structure themed “Cross Border Payments” have completed the “Test Phase”, 

  1. Securities Exchange Board of India 

  2. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

  3. Reserve Bank of India 

  4. Banks Board Bureau 

  5. None of these

The RBI has made the ________ code mandatory for all participants undertaking transactions in the markets regulated by the RBI. 

  1. Visual Entity Identifier

  2. Legal Entity Identifier 

  3. Legit Entity Identifier

  4. Stock Entity Identifier

  5. Transaction Entity Identifier

As per a statement by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, SBI will invest how much per cent equity in Yes Bank with other investors also being invited?

  1. 30

  2. 49

  3. 51

  4. 60

  5. 75

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) approves acquisition of stake in IDFC Asset Management Company Limited and IDFC AMC Trustee Company Limited by ___________ , ChrysCapital and GIC

  1. Bajaj Finserv Ltd 

  2. L & T Finance Holdings Ltd 

  3. Equitas Holdings Ltd 

  4. Bandhan Financial Holdings Ltd 

  5. Muthoot Finance Ltd

Which of the following is the electronic trading platform for natural rubber?

  1. eRube

  2. eNam 

  3. mRubber

  4. eRubber 

  5. mRube

In the Aarogya Sanjeevani policy provided by the insurers, what is the minimum amount sum insured(in rupees) provided under the policy?

  1. 5000 

  2. 50,000 

  3. 1,50,000 

  4. 5,00,000 

  5. None of the above

Which of the following is also known as the bad bank of India?

  1. NCLT 

  2. NARCL

  3. NCLAT 

  4. NARLC 

  5. SARFAESI

The Reserve Bank has released the eligibility criteria for entities to be categorized as 'Specified User' of Credit Information Companies (CICs)." Choose the incorrect option(s) regarding the aforesaid statement?(January, 2021) 

  1. The criteria set out the requirements for the entities to become eligible as Specified User of CIC under the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations,2021.

  2.  The company should have a net worth of not less than Rs.5 crores as per the latest audited balance sheet and should meet the requirement on a continuing basis. 

  3. A 'specified user' should be a company incorporated in India or a statutory corporation established in the country. 

  4. The company shall have at least three years of experience in running the business or activity of processing information.

  5. The criteria set out the requirements for the entities to become eligible as Specified User of CIC under clause (j) of Regulation 3 of the Credit Information Companies (Amendment) Regulations, 2021. 

Which of the following is not a small savings scheme?

  1. PPF 

  2. NSC 

  3. Post Office Time Deposit Scheme

  4. Senior Citizen Savings Scheme

  5. All of the above are small savings schemes 

Recently in July 2022, Maryna Viazovska has won the Fields Medal 2022. The award is related to which field?

  1. Physics 

  2. Mathematics 

  3. Biology 

  4. Statistics

  5. Chemistry

As per RBI data, what is the amount remitted by Indians in Q1FY23 under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS)? 

  1. USD 3.65 billion 

  2. USD 8.76 billion

  3. USD 5.87 billion 

  4. USD 7.62 billion 

  5. USD 6.04 billion

Which of the following has recently been accorded with the status of a ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise, giving it greater operational and financial autonomy? 

  1. Cochin Shipyard Ltd 

  2. RailTel Corporation of India 

  3. BrahMos Aerospace

  4. REC Ltd 

  5. National Dairy Development Board

As per the Union Budget, 2022-2023, "Alternate Minimum Tax" paid by "Cooperative societies" are brought down to how much % from previous 18.5 %? 

  1. 15% 

  2. 14% 

  3. 16% 

  4. 12% 

  5. 16.5%

Who has tendered his resignation from the post of Indian Olympic Association (IOA) President? 

  1. Venkataramani Sumantran 

  2. Shrikant Madhav Vaidya 

  3. Narinder Batra 

  4. Shri Gurdeep Singh

  5. None of the above

Which country has recently become India's top trading partner in 2021-22?

  1. Japan 

  2. United States of America 

  3. China 

  4. Germany 

  5. France

Which of the following company has been given the 'Maharatna' company status by the union government in September 2022?

  1. REC Limited 

  2. Coal India Limited 

  3. Indian Oil Corporation Limited 

  4. NTPC Ltd.

  5. None of the above

Reserve Bank Governor Shaktikanta Das on October 6 launched a new 'SupTech' initiative ____________, which is the bank's Advanced Supervisory Monitoring System and is expected to make the supervisory processes more robust.

  1. UNNAT 

  2. LAKSHYA

  3. VIGIL 

  4. CHASE 

  5. DAKSH

Which of the following theme has been selected by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for Financial Literacy Week in February 2022?

  1. “Go Digital, Go Secure" 

  2. “Economy in Digital Era" 

  3. “Go Digital, Go Cashless"

  4. “Creating Digital Economy" 

  5. "Digital is the Future" 

As per the United Nations-Habitat's World Cities Report 2022, India's urban population is estimated to stand at _________________ in 2035. 

  1. 775 Million 

  2. 675 Million 

  3. 575 Million 

  4. 475 Million

  5. 375 Million

s aims to bring 'Blue Revolution' through sustainable development of the fisheries sector with an investment of Rs 20,050 crore for a period of five years, starting________ in all states/union territories

  1. 2020-21 to 2025-26 

  2. 2021-22 to 2024-25

  3. 2021-22 to 2025-26

  4. 2020-21 to 2024-25

  5. 2021-22 to 2023-24

Often seen in the news, Chabahar Port is located in 

  1. Persian Gulf

  2. Gulf of Oman 

  3. Gulf of Mannar 

  4. Gulfs of Turkey 

  5. None of the above

Which of the following is the oldest grandslam tournament in tennis?

  1. US Open

  2. French Open 

  3. Wimbledon

  4. Australian Open

  5. Indian Open

In June 2022, which portal of the Ministry of Commerce was launched by Narendra Modi to access all the information necessary related to India’s foreign trade?

  1. NIRYAT 

  2. HARBINGER

  3. EXPERT

  4. AYUSH 

  5. None of these

Organization related to “Read Data Book” or “Red List” is

  1. U.T.E.S. 

  2. I.U.C.N. 

  3. I.B.W.C.

  4. W.W.F.

  5. W.T.O

What is the rank of India in the UNDP's Human Development Index 2021, released in September 2022?

  1. 132nd

  2. 71st 

  3. 165th 

  4. 121st 

  5. 134th

Who is the Secretary General of NATO?

  1. Antonio Guterres

  2. Jens Stoltenberg 

  3. Admiral Rob Bauer

  4. Stuart Peach 

  5. Gladwyn Jebb

According to the latest update, India’s government and the _____________ are in talks to introduce a risk-sharing mechanism to compensate banks giving loans for electric vehicle purchases, as the country seeks to decarbonize the transport sector.

  1. New Development Bank 

  2. International Renewable Energy Agency 

  3. Asian Development Bank 

  4. World Bank 

  5. International Finance Corporation

‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program has been launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in additional 126 cities across 14 States/ UTs. The cabinet approved the extension of the scheme “Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi)” to which date? 

  1. March 2022 

  2. December 2024 

  3. June 2023 

  4. June 2024

  5. March 2024

Which of the following has set up a committee to develop a comprehensive framework on the right to repair?

  1. Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals 

  2. Department of Telecommunications

  3. Department of Defence Production 

  4. Department of Consumer Affairs 

  5. Department of Food and Public Distribution

When was the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) incorporated? 

  1. 2008 

  2. 2014

  3. 2015 

  4. 2012 

  5. 2006

Recently in July 2022, Shinzo Abe passed away at the age of 67 after being shot while giving a campaign speech. He was the former Prime Minister of _______________

  1. United Kingdom 

  2. Japan 

  3. Russia 

  4. Israel 

  5. South Korea

The GST council is headed by the:

  1. SEBI chairman 

  2. Prime minister 

  3. RBI governor

  4. Union finance minister

  5. None of the above 

The gross GST revenue collected in the month of August 2022 stood at Rs ________ crore.

  1. 1,43,612 

  2. 1,52,678

  3. 1,87,560 

  4. 2,98,560 

  5. 1,35,827

Government has extended the line for levy of GST compensation cess by nearly 4 years till which date?

  1. 2026 

  2. 2030

  3. 2050

  4. 2024 

  5. 2023

International Tiger day is celebrated by WWF every year, Where is the headquarters of WWF is located?

  1. United Arab Emirates 

  2. Switzerland 

  3. USA 

  4. Philippines

  5. California

Which state has topped the 'State Ranking Index for National Food Security Act' 2022?

  1. Gujarat 

  2. Punjab 

  3. Odisha 

  4. Kerala 

  5. Chhattisgarh

Which of the following countries are a part of G-7 Grouping?

  1. France, USA, Germany, Spain 

  2. Canada, France, Germany, Italy 

  3. United Kingdom, Austria, Germany, Italy 

  4. USA, France, Japan, China 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

How is Starlink satellite supposed to reach India? 

  1. By connections

  2. By flight 

  3. By covering most parts of the earth 

  4. By occupying its land 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

During the beta testing period, what speed range does the broadband service provide?

  1. Speed between 20 mbps to 40 mbps.

  2. Speed of around 300mbps

  3. Speed between 50 mbps to 150 mbps.

  4. Speed of 20 mbps 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

Give another word for the underlined word in the given line - "SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India

  1. Reject 

  2. Counsel 

  3. Refuse

  4. Decline 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

During the beta testing, what does a Starlink kit provide its users? 

  1. Expensive services 

  2. Phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router

  3. Free service

  4. Free data 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

Find a word which has the opposite meaning for the underlined word in the given line - "Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps." 

  1. Provide 

  2. Recommend 

  3. Withdrawing 

  4. Propose 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

Give the correct antonym for the word "confirmed". 

  1. Contradicted 

  2. Established 

  3. Firm 

  4. Settled 

  5. None of the above

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words may be highlighted for you. Pay careful attention. 

Elon Musk’s SpaceX has been testing the Starlink satellite broadband service which boasts of a speed boost of around 300mbps and latency reduction to around 20ms. Musk confirmed the speed boost in response to a tweet by a user who received the Starlink broadband kit in the United States and shared a screenshot of the service offering them broadband speeds of 130mbps. "Speed will double to ~300Mb/s & latency will drop to ~20ms later this year," he said. During the beta testing phase, Starlink offered users a broadband speed between 50mbps and 150mbps with the latency expected between 20ms and 40ms, depending on location. In this phase, the Starlink kit included a phased-arrayed satellite dish, a tripod and a Wi-Fi router. SpaceX says that the Starlink satellite broadband service will cover most of the Earth by the end of the year which means that the service could also be expanded in India although there is no confirmed roadmap for the same. SpaceX has already submitted its recommendations to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) last year for introducing satellite broadband in India.

"Most of Earth by end of the year, all by next year, then it’s about densifying coverage. Important to note that cellular will always have the advantage in dense urban areas. Satellites are best for low to medium population density areas," tweeted Musk. 

Question:

Give the synonym for the word "response".

  1. Dissatisfy 

  2. Deny 

  3. Leave 

  4. Reply 

  5. None of the above

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions given below.

It's no secret that Mount Everest, the jewel in Nepal's Himalayan crown, is the world's premier mountain. It's one of those facts embedded in childhood, like knowing that Neil Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon or that blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived. You may be surprised to hear, then, that other peaks could conceivably be considered Earth's tallest; it just depends how you measure them. So, judging by different parameters — including tallest by altitude, tallest from base to top and tallest based on being the farthest point from Earth's center — what is the tallest mountain in the world?

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. "Historically, and even now, elevation is usually given as height above mean sea level," said Price. “However, this has to be with reference to a standard mean sea level, which has to be defined. Sea levels are different in different parts of the world, and they're changing due to climate change." As a result, "elevation is now measured in relation to the mathematically defined geoid of the Earth," he said. The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the height of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International. These measurements, in conjunction with GPS readings, provide incredibly accurate elevation readings. 

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. 

So, all mountains are measured from sea level, predominantly for convenience and consistency, but what if measurements were simply taken from base to peak? Would Everest still top the charts? The answer is a mountainous "no." That honor would go to Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano in Hawaii. Should we, therefore, regard Mauna Kea as the tallest mountain on Earth? "It all depends on the perspective you take," Price said. "If there were no oceans on our planet, there would be no debate! You could draw comparisons to the highest mountains on other bodies in our solar system, which have no oceans."

Question:

What does the author tries to infer in the said line: “It all depends on the perspective you take.”

  1. It depends on your skills.

  2. It depends on how you take measurements. 

  3. It depends on your framework and definition

  4. Both 1 and 2 

  5. All of these

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions given below.

It's no secret that Mount Everest, the jewel in Nepal's Himalayan crown, is the world's premier mountain. It's one of those facts embedded in childhood, like knowing that Neil Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon or that blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived. You may be surprised to hear, then, that other peaks could conceivably be considered Earth's tallest; it just depends how you measure them. So, judging by different parameters — including tallest by altitude, tallest from base to top and tallest based on being the farthest point from Earth's center — what is the tallest mountain in the world?

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. "Historically, and even now, elevation is usually given as height above mean sea level," said Price. “However, this has to be with reference to a standard mean sea level, which has to be defined. Sea levels are different in different parts of the world, and they're changing due to climate change." As a result, "elevation is now measured in relation to the mathematically defined geoid of the Earth," he said. The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the height of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International. These measurements, in conjunction with GPS readings, provide incredibly accurate elevation readings. 

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. 

So, all mountains are measured from sea level, predominantly for convenience and consistency, but what if measurements were simply taken from base to peak? Would Everest still top the charts? The answer is a mountainous "no." That honor would go to Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano in Hawaii. Should we, therefore, regard Mauna Kea as the tallest mountain on Earth? "It all depends on the perspective you take," Price said. "If there were no oceans on our planet, there would be no debate! You could draw comparisons to the highest mountains on other bodies in our solar system, which have no oceans."

Question:

The given sentence is divided into (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find the error if there is any. If there is no error, mark option (E) as “No error”.

"In order to have comparability in(A) measurements, it is necessary to have(B) a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director(C) of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland(D).No error(E). 

  1. "In order to have comparability in 

  2. measurements, it is necessary to have

  3. a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director 

  4. of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland 5. No error

  5. No error

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions given below.

It's no secret that Mount Everest, the jewel in Nepal's Himalayan crown, is the world's premier mountain. It's one of those facts embedded in childhood, like knowing that Neil Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon or that blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived. You may be surprised to hear, then, that other peaks could conceivably be considered Earth's tallest; it just depends how you measure them. So, judging by different parameters — including tallest by altitude, tallest from base to top and tallest based on being the farthest point from Earth's center — what is the tallest mountain in the world?

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. "Historically, and even now, elevation is usually given as height above mean sea level," said Price. “However, this has to be with reference to a standard mean sea level, which has to be defined. Sea levels are different in different parts of the world, and they're changing due to climate change." As a result, "elevation is now measured in relation to the mathematically defined geoid of the Earth," he said. The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the height of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International. These measurements, in conjunction with GPS readings, provide incredibly accurate elevation readings. 

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. 

So, all mountains are measured from sea level, predominantly for convenience and consistency, but what if measurements were simply taken from base to peak? Would Everest still top the charts? The answer is a mountainous "no." That honor would go to Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano in Hawaii. Should we, therefore, regard Mauna Kea as the tallest mountain on Earth? "It all depends on the perspective you take," Price said. "If there were no oceans on our planet, there would be no debate! You could draw comparisons to the highest mountains on other bodies in our solar system, which have no oceans."

Question:

Choose the correct synonym for the word ‘parameters’. 

  1. Criterion.

  2. Guideline 

  3. Constant. 

  4. Specification. 

  5. All of these. 

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions given below.

It's no secret that Mount Everest, the jewel in Nepal's Himalayan crown, is the world's premier mountain. It's one of those facts embedded in childhood, like knowing that Neil Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon or that blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived. You may be surprised to hear, then, that other peaks could conceivably be considered Earth's tallest; it just depends how you measure them. So, judging by different parameters — including tallest by altitude, tallest from base to top and tallest based on being the farthest point from Earth's center — what is the tallest mountain in the world?

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. "Historically, and even now, elevation is usually given as height above mean sea level," said Price. “However, this has to be with reference to a standard mean sea level, which has to be defined. Sea levels are different in different parts of the world, and they're changing due to climate change." As a result, "elevation is now measured in relation to the mathematically defined geoid of the Earth," he said. The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the height of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International. These measurements, in conjunction with GPS readings, provide incredibly accurate elevation readings. 

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. 

So, all mountains are measured from sea level, predominantly for convenience and consistency, but what if measurements were simply taken from base to peak? Would Everest still top the charts? The answer is a mountainous "no." That honor would go to Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano in Hawaii. Should we, therefore, regard Mauna Kea as the tallest mountain on Earth? "It all depends on the perspective you take," Price said. "If there were no oceans on our planet, there would be no debate! You could draw comparisons to the highest mountains on other bodies in our solar system, which have no oceans."

Question:

Give the antonym for ‘Elevation’ 

  1. Surge 

  2. Disdain 

  3. Demotion 

  4. Both (b) and (c) 

  5. All of these. 

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions given below.

It's no secret that Mount Everest, the jewel in Nepal's Himalayan crown, is the world's premier mountain. It's one of those facts embedded in childhood, like knowing that Neil Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon or that blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived. You may be surprised to hear, then, that other peaks could conceivably be considered Earth's tallest; it just depends how you measure them. So, judging by different parameters — including tallest by altitude, tallest from base to top and tallest based on being the farthest point from Earth's center — what is the tallest mountain in the world?

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. "Historically, and even now, elevation is usually given as height above mean sea level," said Price. “However, this has to be with reference to a standard mean sea level, which has to be defined. Sea levels are different in different parts of the world, and they're changing due to climate change." As a result, "elevation is now measured in relation to the mathematically defined geoid of the Earth," he said. The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the height of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International. These measurements, in conjunction with GPS readings, provide incredibly accurate elevation readings. 

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. 

So, all mountains are measured from sea level, predominantly for convenience and consistency, but what if measurements were simply taken from base to peak? Would Everest still top the charts? The answer is a mountainous "no." That honor would go to Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano in Hawaii. Should we, therefore, regard Mauna Kea as the tallest mountain on Earth? "It all depends on the perspective you take," Price said. "If there were no oceans on our planet, there would be no debate! You could draw comparisons to the highest mountains on other bodies in our solar system, which have no oceans."

Question:

What is ‘geoid’ according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration?

  1. A model of sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations.

  2. A model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise sea elevations.

  3. A model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations. 

  4. A model of global mean surface level that is used to measure precise sea and surface elevations.

  5. None of these. 

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions given below.

It's no secret that Mount Everest, the jewel in Nepal's Himalayan crown, is the world's premier mountain. It's one of those facts embedded in childhood, like knowing that Neil Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon or that blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived. You may be surprised to hear, then, that other peaks could conceivably be considered Earth's tallest; it just depends how you measure them. So, judging by different parameters — including tallest by altitude, tallest from base to top and tallest based on being the farthest point from Earth's center — what is the tallest mountain in the world?

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. "Historically, and even now, elevation is usually given as height above mean sea level," said Price. “However, this has to be with reference to a standard mean sea level, which has to be defined. Sea levels are different in different parts of the world, and they're changing due to climate change." As a result, "elevation is now measured in relation to the mathematically defined geoid of the Earth," he said. The geoid is, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration "a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations." This average is used to ascertain the height of mountains, a process that sometimes requires an aero plane to fly "back and forth over a mountain in a series of parallel lines to measure how much gravity pulls down on its peak," according to GIM International. These measurements, in conjunction with GPS readings, provide incredibly accurate elevation readings. 

"In order to have comparability in measurements, it is necessary to have a consistent baseline," Martin Price, a professor and founding director of the Centre for Mountain Studies at the University of Highlands and Islands in Scotland. 

So, all mountains are measured from sea level, predominantly for convenience and consistency, but what if measurements were simply taken from base to peak? Would Everest still top the charts? The answer is a mountainous "no." That honor would go to Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano in Hawaii. Should we, therefore, regard Mauna Kea as the tallest mountain on Earth? "It all depends on the perspective you take," Price said. "If there were no oceans on our planet, there would be no debate! You could draw comparisons to the highest mountains on other bodies in our solar system, which have no oceans."

Question:

What is necessary in order to have comparability in measurements?

  1. Consistent temperature.

  2. Consistent baseline. 

  3. Varied measurements. 

  4. Consistent GPS readings 

  5. None of these.

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence(s) in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer

  1. A-R, B-P, C-Q 

  2. A-Q, B-P 

  3. A-Q, B-R, C-P 

  4. B-R, C-Q 

  5. None of these

 Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence(s) in hich one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer. 

  1. A-Q, B-R, C-P

  2. A-R, B-P, C-Q 

  3. A-R, C-Q 

  4. A-Q, B-P, C-R

  5. None of these

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence(s) in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer. 

  1. A-Q, C-R

  2. A-P, B-Q, C-R

  3. A-R, B-Q, C-P

  4. A-Q, B-R, C-P 

  5. None of these

Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

  1. B-P

  2. C-Q

  3. B-R 

  4. A-Q 

  5. None of these

Directions: Seven sentences are given, in which the last sentence is fixed; also one sentence is going to be filled with the appropriate word. Arrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. Out of the seven sentences, there is one sentence that does not fit into the theme of the passage thus formed. Read the sentences carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A. India began its own Green Revolution program of plant breeding, irrigation development, and financing of agrochemicals.

B. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.

C. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers

D. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers.

E. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to _______ themselves.

F. Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords.

G. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

Question:

Find the sentence which doesn't fit into the context. 

  1. C

  2. D

  3. E

  4. A

  5. B

Directions: Seven sentences are given, in which the last sentence is fixed; also one sentence is going to be filled with the appropriate word. Arrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. Out of the seven sentences, there is one sentence that does not fit into the theme of the passage thus formed. Read the sentences carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A. India began its own Green Revolution program of plant breeding, irrigation development, and financing of agrochemicals.

B. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.

C. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers

D. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers.

E. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to _______ themselves.

F. Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords.

G. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

Question:

Find the appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to _______ themselves.

  1. Torment 

  2. Sustain 

  3. Plague 

  4. Agonize

  5. Excruciate

Directions: Seven sentences are given, in which the last sentence is fixed; also one sentence is going to be filled with the appropriate word. Arrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. Out of the seven sentences, there is one sentence that does not fit into the theme of the passage thus formed. Read the sentences carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A. India began its own Green Revolution program of plant breeding, irrigation development, and financing of agrochemicals.

B. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.

C. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers

D. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers.

E. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to _______ themselves.

F. Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords.

G. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

Question:

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. F

  2. A

  3. C

  4. E

  5. B

Directions: Seven sentences are given, in which the last sentence is fixed; also one sentence is going to be filled with the appropriate word. Arrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. Out of the seven sentences, there is one sentence that does not fit into the theme of the passage thus formed. Read the sentences carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A. India began its own Green Revolution program of plant breeding, irrigation development, and financing of agrochemicals.

B. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.

C. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers

D. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers.

E. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to _______ themselves.

F. Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords.

G. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

Question:

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? 

  1. E

  2. D

  3. C

  4. A

  5. B

Directions: Seven sentences are given, in which the last sentence is fixed; also one sentence is going to be filled with the appropriate word. Arrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. Out of the seven sentences, there is one sentence that does not fit into the theme of the passage thus formed. Read the sentences carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A. India began its own Green Revolution program of plant breeding, irrigation development, and financing of agrochemicals.

B. A rapid expansion of small landowners did occur, but the peasantry as a whole did not acquire land.

C. The result of the White Revolution was that the rural population could be separated into three groups: prosperous farmers, small landowners, and village laborers

D. In their place, though, emerged a new group of commercial farmers, and many previously large landowning families, such as the Pahlavi family, managed to renovate themselves into these commercial farmers.

E. Only roughly half of the rural population received any land, and many of the people who did receive land did not receive enough to _______ themselves.

F. Land reform, which was the focus of the White Revolution, did what it was intended to do, weaken the nobles and landlords.

G. The first group was the only group to really benefit from the land reforms, and this group consisted of former village headmen, bailiffs, and some former landlords.

Question:

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

  1. A

  2. F

  3. C

  4. B

  5. D

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

A major fire gutted a leading textile showroom in Surat, with fire and rescue services ____________ struggling to __________ the blaze in an operation extending for over 10 hours.

Lake Superior and Abrahm fire __________ reached the spot to ___________ the blaze. Officials brought the fire under control with the help of three fire engines.

  1. People, desiccate

  2. Personal, dehydrate

  3. Personnel, douse 

  4. Security, dry

  5. Private, start

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

Abhishek was lauded for __________ handling India’s trade talks with RCEP, the China-led body that India didn’t ____________________ join.

Aamir Khan and Alaya F ______ play unwilling dad and persistent daughter, though Tony Kakkar’s film ______________ runs out of gas.

  1. Nimbly, immediately

  2. Deftly, Eventually

  3. gracefully, instantly 

  4. Doubtfully, Lastly 

  5. Unskillfully, Finally

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

Maintaining the status quo on tax rates also sends a strong signal to the ____________ that the government is committed to a long-term stable and predictable tax policy, despite the current fiscal _____________. 

With institutional clients to worry about, the pros duly cut positions across the board while retail ____________ , who are free from such ____________, charged on.

  1. Exporters, Allowance 

  2. Importers, Allowance

  3. Investors, Constraints

  4. Financers, Liberty

  5. Importers, Freedom

blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

The real advantage of this lens is that each area blends _______ into the other, and even better, building an ______ set that binds the lens and other parts of the telescope. 

To determine your bridal style, first consider your wedding theme, as your overall hairstyle should mesh easily and _______ with your vision giving rise to an _________ appearance that takes the surrounding along with your desire

  1. Brokenly, included

  2. Seamlessly, inclusive 

  3. Abruptly, excluded 

  4. Smooth, excluded

  5. Suddenly, exclusive

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

His eyes seemed to have _____ all the fire of the world, and his tone was _________ , his features being calm.

After his blood was ______ we concluded that stimulants and strychnine may be given, but they should be avoided until it is certain the bleeding has been properly _________, as they tend to increase it.

  1. Get, constricted

  2. Collected, controlled

  3. withdrawn, owned 

  4. Taken, owned

  5. Withdrawn, vague

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

Academies have been male bastions with the significant inclusion of women scientists, irrespective of their contributions and work.

  1. embracing 

  2. exclusion 

  3. banishment 

  4. adoption 

  5. assimilation

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?

If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

Resource management ought to give sufficient importance to the regeneration and desolation of these material resources as well as the subtle resource that resides within us. 

  1. reinvention 

  2. extinction

  3. reanimation 

  4. revitalization 

  5. annihilation

In the given questions, a word in the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out of the given five options.

The anti-dumping statute gives American firms an internationally recognised tool to seek relief from the harmful impacts of unfair import prices.

  1. encouraging 

  2. adverse 

  3. adversely 

  4. favourable 

  5. prosperous 

Directions: In the question below, a sentence is given. From the options, choose the one that conveys the same meaning as the given statement. If all of them convey the same meaning, mark E as your response.

Corporate organizations have usually well-defined processes, which makes it a lot more difficult to get things done or influence the big picture.

A) Communication between the employees and the founders or management is open and transparent.

B) Many people are involved in the decisions and the decision process is often quite long and as logical as possible.

C) This fast-paced, dynamic environment can be extremely exciting and provides many opportunities to learn!

D) The work can differ from day to day and your roles and tasks can change entirely from one week to the next.

E) All are correct. 

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. E

Directions: In the question below, a sentence is given. From the options, choose the one that conveys the same meaning as the given statement. If all of them convey the same meaning, mark E as your response. 

Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers.

A) It aims at promoting goods and services, pricing them, and making them available to customers.

B) It involves a substantial investment, interestingly, sales are the business process that generates revenue for the business.

C) The exchange of commodities for money; the action of selling something.

D) The main focus is to increase sales and maximize revenue.

E) All are correct.

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. E

Directions: In the question below, a sentence is given. From the options, choose the one that conveys the same meaning as the given statement. If all of them convey the same meaning, mark E as your response.

With physical learning, mentors and teachers have to be present in the classroom on location and only a limited number of students could benefit from this. 

A) This tech-oriented approach to learning has helped students save a lot of time and their testimonials are living proof of this.

B) The biggest advantage is that you can literally learn from anywhere you like.

C) The commute up and down will take away a huge part of your time and not to mention the risks associated with travel and the energy you end up draining in the process.

D) Students can virtually be present inside the classrooms of some of the best teachers in the industry.

E) All are correct.

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. E

Directions: In the question below, a sentence is given. From the options, choose the one that conveys the same meaning as the given statement. If all of them convey the same meaning, mark E as your response. Fellowship is focused on the development of a student by offering them study in a specific field.

A) It is offered to students or trainees interested in exploring and gaining more work experience in a particular industry.

B) It is mainly for undergraduate students in their final year, however, fresh graduates can also apply for it after they complete their studies.

C) For an internship program, companies display what they have on their websites or through other media and candidates have to apply

D) It supports a range of different activities for purposes of research, graduates studies, developing communitybased organizations, providing opportunities for exploring a field of work, and offering training.

E) All are correct.

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. E

Directions: In the question below, a sentence is given. From the options, choose the one that conveys the same meaning as the given statement. If all of them convey the same meaning, mark E as your response.

It is being constantly evolved for the inclusion of better-proven techniques for curing ailments and it also includes forms of treatment from alternative medicine fields once they are clinically tested and proven.

A) In this form of medication, the body of an ill person is exposed to similar kinds of other diseases, this helps them boost their immune system and fight against the disease.

B) In this form of medication, the body of an ill person is exposed to similar kinds of other diseases as it aims at curing the entire body.

C) It is also known as Modern Medicine and is based on proofs and successful clinical trials of medications.

D) A system of alternative medicine, which was developed by German physician Samuel Hahnemann, Homeopathy translates into ‘similar suffering’.

E) All are correct. 

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. E

Directions: In the question below, a sentence is given. From the options, choose the one that conveys the same meaning as the given statement. If all of them convey the same meaning, mark E as your response.

At a hospital, you see doctors with a variety of backgrounds who work together to deal with your medical concerns.

A) They typically cover the primary care needs of populations in local communities, in contrast to larger hospitals.

B) You may not always get the specialized care you need during your stay, but you can learn about the next steps in your care plan.

C) It may have extended hours and be open during evenings, weekends, and holidays.

D) A general clinic may not have the technology to help if you have a condition that requires specialized knowledge.

E) All are correct. 

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. E

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged.Choose the pair(s) of words which need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The company uses AI software (A) installed in the cameras to (B) generating video footage of traffic, (C) analyse data that helps local (D) authorities to plan traffic (E) management.

  1. A-C 

  2. B-D and A-E

  3. B-C

  4. A-D

  5. C-E 

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words which need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

Despite this (A) unidentified and the efforts of thousands of scientists working to (B) ward off dangerous new (C) outbreaks, the coronavirus behind COVID-19 was (D) network when it launched into an (E) unprepared world at the end of 2019.

  1. B-C 

  2. D-E

  3. A-D

  4. A-C 

  5. None of these

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words which need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

It is true that salmon and other fish have been (A) banished from rivers and (B) depredations in which they once (C) abounded, but this was not (D) owing to the great (E) creeks of fishermen, as has generally been supposed. 

  1. A-B 

  2. B-E 

  3. C-D 

  4. D-E

  5. None of these

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Seven persons attends the interview in a week starting from Monday and ends on Sunday and they like different items T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator, but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top. W does not like Top. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. K attends the interview immediately after L. W does not like Shoes. P is one of the persons. 

Question:

Four of the following five are like in a certain way based on the above arrangement. Find which of the following one does not belong to the group? 

  1. G-Jeans 

  2. R-Shoes 

  3. N-Top

  4. W-T-shirt 

  5. L-TV 

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Seven persons attends the interview in a week starting from Monday and ends on Sunday and they like different items T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator, but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top. W does not like Top. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. K attends the interview immediately after L. W does not like Shoes. P is one of the persons. 

Question:

Who among the following person attends the class immediately after K?

  1. G

  2. The one who bought refrigerator

  3. The one who bought bag

  4. P

  5. W

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Seven persons attends the interview in a week starting from Monday and ends on Sunday and they like different items T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator, but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top. W does not like Top. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. K attends the interview immediately after L. W does not like Shoes. P is one of the persons. 

Question:

If P is related to Bag, R is related to Top, in the same way K is related to which of the following item?

  1. Refrigerator

  2. Shoes 

  3. Jean

  4. TV

  5. Tops

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Seven persons attends the interview in a week starting from Monday and ends on Sunday and they like different items T-shirt, Shoes, Top, Jeans, Bag, TV and Refrigerator, but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons attend the interview between R and the one who likes Refrigerator. Only two persons attend the interview after the one who likes Jeans. R attends the interview before the one who likes Refrigerator. Only one person attends the interview between N and the one who likes Top. The one who likes T-shirt attends the interview immediately before the one who likes Top. W does not like Top. The one who likes Bag attends the interview immediately before R. As many persons attend the interview before W as after N. G attends the interview immediately after the one who likes TV. N and G does not attend the interview consecutively. K attends the interview immediately after L. W does not like Shoes. P is one of the persons. 

Question:

How many persons attend the class after the one who bought shoes?

  1. No one 

  2. 1

  3. 2

  4. 3

  5. None of the above

In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words which need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The project has far-reaching (A) notably across cancer research, perhaps most (B) consequences in helping clinicians design treatment (C) regimens for individual cancer patients—bringing us closer to making what’s called (D) precision medicine a (E) reality. 

  1. A-B 

  2. C-D 

  3. A-D 

  4. D-E

  5. None of these

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a hexagon arrangement, at each corner a triangle is placed which is denoted by two letters and two numbers. Below are given some of the conditions: 

1. If the number is perfect square, then only the number is reduced by 1. 2. If there is at least one vowel then change it to the succeeding alphabet. 3. If both digits are odd then increase those digits by 2. 4. If any one of the consonants is greater than M in alphabetical order then change it to the previous alphabet.

Note: If no condition is applied then there will be no change. Apply the above given conditions to find the output. More than one condition is applicable.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input

Question:

How many letters are there between the first letter of the output of triangle 1 and second letter of output of triangle 5?

  1. 11

  2. 8

  3. 10

  4. 7

  5. None of the above

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a hexagon arrangement, at each corner a triangle is placed which is denoted by two letters and two numbers. Below are given some of the conditions: 

1. If the number is perfect square, then only the number is reduced by 1. 2. If there is at least one vowel then change it to the succeeding alphabet. 3. If both digits are odd then increase those digits by 2. 4. If any one of the consonants is greater than M in alphabetical order then change it to the previous alphabet.

Note: If no condition is applied then there will be no change. Apply the above given conditions to find the output. More than one condition is applicable.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input

Question:

What is the output of triangle 4?

  1. u, y 

  2. t, x 

  3. s, x 

  4. s, w

  5. t, r

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a hexagon arrangement, at each corner a triangle is placed which is denoted by two letters and two numbers. Below are given some of the conditions: 

1. If the number is perfect square, then only the number is reduced by 1. 2. If there is at least one vowel then change it to the succeeding alphabet. 3. If both digits are odd then increase those digits by 2. 4. If any one of the consonants is greater than M in alphabetical order then change it to the previous alphabet.

Note: If no condition is applied then there will be no change. Apply the above given conditions to find the output. More than one condition is applicable.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input

Question:

What is the sum of first number of output of triangle 3 and the second number of output of triangle 6?

  1. 10

  2. 9

  3. 8

  4. 7

  5. 6

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a hexagon arrangement, at each corner a triangle is placed which is denoted by two letters and two numbers. Below are given some of the conditions: 

1. If the number is perfect square, then only the number is reduced by 1. 2. If there is at least one vowel then change it to the succeeding alphabet. 3. If both digits are odd then increase those digits by 2. 4. If any one of the consonants is greater than M in alphabetical order then change it to the previous alphabet.

Note: If no condition is applied then there will be no change. Apply the above given conditions to find the output. More than one condition is applicable.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input

Question:

What is the sum of the product of numbers of output of triangle 3 and product of numbers of output of triangle 6?

  1. 31

  2. 55

  3. 49

  4. 61

  5. None of the above

Direction: In the given word "AUTHORISE" replace the consonants with the succeeding letter as per the English alphabet series and vowel with their preceding letter as per the English alphabet series. Then arrange the letters in reverse alphabetical order from right to left. Which of the following letter is third from the left end after arrangement? 

  1. D

  2. H

  3. I

  4. N

  5. S

In the question below are given three statements followed by conclusions given in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Some apples are mango

No mango is papaya

Only a few papayas are kiwi

Conclusion:

I. Some papayas are not kiwi

II. All mangoes are kiwi is a possibility

III. Some apples are not kiwi 

  1. Only III follows 

  2. Both I and II follows 

  3. Both I and III follows 

  4. Either I or II and III follows 

  5. All I, II, III follows

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by conclusions given in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely does not follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts

Statement:

Some fruits are jam

Only a few jams are butter

All butter is gee

Conclusion:

I. All gee can be jam

II. Some butters are not jam

III. All butter are fruit is a possibility

  1. Only II 

  2. Both I and II

  3. Both I and III 

  4. Either I or II and III 

  5. All I, II, III

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by conclusions given in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Only a few cars are van

All van is jeep

No jeep is bus

Conclusion:

I. Some buses are car.

II. No bus is car.

III. All jeep are car is a possibility. 

  1. Only III follows 

  2. Both I and II follows

  3. Both I and III follows 

  4. Either I or II and III follows 

  5. All I, II, III follows

Directions: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer. There are six family members G, K, S, T, R and V in a family. How is V related to R?

Statement I: G is the father of V. K is the grandson of S. T is the wife of R.

Statement II: K is the son of T. T is the daughter of S. V is the sibling of S. 

  1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  3. If the data either in statement, I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question 

  4. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

  5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question 

Directions: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V attend the seminar in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. In which of the following day does S attend the seminar?

Statement I: P attend the seminar after three persons. Two persons have attended the seminar in between P and T. U attends the seminar just after T. Q attend the seminar on Saturday.

Statement II: R attend the seminar just after P. Only one person attends the seminar between R and V. V and Q attend the seminar in an adjacent day. 

  1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

  2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question 

  4. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question 

  5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Directions: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer. Six persons K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting in a circular table facing inside the table. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of K?

Statement I: O sits second to the left of N. M sits third to the right of N. Only one person sits between M and L.

Statement II: P sits second to the right of N. Two persons sit between P and L. M sits to the immediate left of O

  1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  2.  If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  3. If the data either in statement, I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question 

  4. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question 

  5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question 

Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give an answer: Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are of different weights. Whose weight is the lightest?

Statement I: A is heavier than C. C is heavier than both E and F.

Statement II: B is heavier than D who is heavier than E. E is not the lightest person.

  1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question 

  3. If the data either in statement, I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question 

  4. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question 

  5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

X + Y – X is the brother of Y

X % Y – X is the mother of Y

X ! Y – X is the father of Y

X * Y – X is the sister of Y

X # Y – X is the daughter of Y

X @ Y – X is the son of Y X ~ Y – X is elder than Y

$ – in-law

© - grand

Example:

If X %$ Y → X is the mother-in-law of Y, X *$ Y → X is sister-in-law of Y

If X ©% Y →X is Grand Mother of Y, X ©# Y → X is Granddaughter of Y

M # P © % J; N + $ R; O + $ B ! $ S % J # R; P * O ~ B; N @ $ B; B ~ P

Question:

If the age of O is 49 and age of P is 46 then what may be the age of B? 

  1. 48

  2. 45

  3. 50

  4. 46

  5. 44

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

X + Y – X is the brother of Y

X % Y – X is the mother of Y

X ! Y – X is the father of Y

X * Y – X is the sister of Y

X # Y – X is the daughter of Y

X @ Y – X is the son of Y X ~ Y – X is elder than Y

$ – in-law

© - grand

Example:

If X %$ Y → X is the mother-in-law of Y, X *$ Y → X is sister-in-law of Y

If X ©% Y →X is Grand Mother of Y, X ©# Y → X is Granddaughter of Y

M # P © % J; N + $ R; O + $ B ! $ S % J # R; P * O ~ B; N @ $ B; B ~ P

Question:

Which of the following pair is incorrect relation?

  1. M * $ S

  2. R + $ N

  3. R @ B 

  4. M * B 

  5. J # S 

Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, +, ©, $ and # are used with the following meaning:

A @ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. 

Question:

Statements: 3 $ 9 + 7 © 8 # 6; 7 @ 6 + 5; 6 + 4 © 2

Conclusions:

I. 9 # 5

II. 2 @ 8

III. 7 @ 3

  1. Only conclusions I and III follow 

  2. Only conclusion II follows

  3. Only conclusions II and III follow 

  4. Only conclusion I follows

  5. None follow

Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, +, ©, $ and # are used with the following meaning:

A @ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. 

Question:

Statements: G © U + N $ K; R # P @ N + M; P + Q # D

Conclusions:

I. U # Q

II. R # U

III. D @ R

  1. Only conclusions I and III follow 

  2. Only conclusion II follows 

  3. Only conclusions II and III follow 

  4. Only conclusion I follows 

  5. None follow

Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, +, ©, $ and # are used with the following meaning:

A @ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. 

Question:

Statements: P # R © T + C; I $ G @ T; P + H

Conclusions:

I. T # I

II. T @ H

III. P @ T

  1. Only conclusion I and III follow

  2. Only conclusion II follows 

  3. Only conclusion II and III follow 

  4. Only conclusion I follows

  5. None follow

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

In the given matrix rows are numbered from top to bottom i.e., I, II, III and IV and columns are numbered left to right i.e., I, II, III and IV. Some of the places is filled with respective colors in the matrix, and some are missing. To find the respective color of the missing places on the matrix fill it in a way such that no same color is repeated in a row nor in a column. 

There are four colors i.e., red, green, blue, and yellow and a specific numerical value is assigned to each place in the matrix which is the value associated with each colour and the value assigned to these colors is, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively.

Now resultant of rows and columns are written in specific manner. For each row, write associated numerical value from left to right in that row and for a column write respective numerical value from bottom to top. 

Question:

In which of the following pair blue and green are consecutive? 

  1. Row I, Row III 

  2. Row II, Row III

  3. Row II, Row IV

  4. Row I, Row II 

  5. None of these

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

In the given matrix rows are numbered from top to bottom i.e., I, II, III and IV and columns are numbered left to right i.e., I, II, III and IV. Some of the places is filled with respective colors in the matrix, and some are missing. To find the respective color of the missing places on the matrix fill it in a way such that no same color is repeated in a row nor in a column. 

There are four colors i.e., red, green, blue, and yellow and a specific numerical value is assigned to each place in the matrix which is the value associated with each colour and the value assigned to these colors is, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively.

Now resultant of rows and columns are written in specific manner. For each row, write associated numerical value from left to right in that row and for a column write respective numerical value from bottom to top. 

Question:

Which of the following resultant is divisible by 4?

  1. Row II

  2. Row III

  3. Row IV

  4. Column I 

  5. Column II

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

In the given matrix rows are numbered from top to bottom i.e., I, II, III and IV and columns are numbered left to right i.e., I, II, III and IV. Some of the places is filled with respective colors in the matrix, and some are missing. To find the respective color of the missing places on the matrix fill it in a way such that no same color is repeated in a row nor in a column. 

There are four colors i.e., red, green, blue, and yellow and a specific numerical value is assigned to each place in the matrix which is the value associated with each colour and the value assigned to these colors is, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively.

Now resultant of rows and columns are written in specific manner. For each row, write associated numerical value from left to right in that row and for a column write respective numerical value from bottom to top. 

Question:

What is the difference of resultant of row IV and column IV? 

  1. 2000 

  2. 2032 

  3. 1754

  4. 1881

  5. 1672

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

In the given matrix rows are numbered from top to bottom i.e., I, II, III and IV and columns are numbered left to right i.e., I, II, III and IV. Some of the places is filled with respective colors in the matrix, and some are missing. To find the respective color of the missing places on the matrix fill it in a way such that no same color is repeated in a row nor in a column. 

There are four colors i.e., red, green, blue, and yellow and a specific numerical value is assigned to each place in the matrix which is the value associated with each colour and the value assigned to these colors is, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively.

Now resultant of rows and columns are written in specific manner. For each row, write associated numerical value from left to right in that row and for a column write respective numerical value from bottom to top. 

Question:

If the resultant of a row is even, then add 222 to get the new resultant and if the resultant of column is odd then subtract 111 to get the new resultant .After rearrangement Which of the following is true?

I. Resultant of row I is less than the resultant of column

III II. A difference of resultant of row II and column I is odd

III. Sum of the digits of resultant of row IV is even

  1. Only I and II 

  2. Only II and III 

  3. Only III 

  4. Only II

  5. All of the above

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

21 persons work in bank at different post. The posts are in decreasing order i.e., Chairman, GM, Manager, AM, PO and Clerk. It is known that in any post the number of persons posted were one more than the number of persons posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 person works as a PO then 5 persons work as a clerk. E works as a manager and is just senior to Z. C and G work at same post and were senior to E. F, Q and R work at same post and were junior to Z. A is just junior to W but just senior to R. P, T and Y work at same post but not with A. V is junior to Z but senior to J. K and O work at same post but does not work as a clerk. S does not work along with U and P. D is senior to M and junior to S. U and B work at same place. 

Question:

O work at which post? 

  1. GM

  2. Manager 

  3. AM 

  4. PO

  5. Clerk

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

21 persons work in bank at different post. The posts are in decreasing order i.e., Chairman, GM, Manager, AM, PO and Clerk. It is known that in any post the number of persons posted were one more than the number of persons posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 person works as a PO then 5 persons work as a clerk. E works as a manager and is just senior to Z. C and G work at same post and were senior to E. F, Q and R work at same post and were junior to Z. A is just junior to W but just senior to R. P, T and Y work at same post but not with A. V is junior to Z but senior to J. K and O work at same post but does not work as a clerk. S does not work along with U and P. D is senior to M and junior to S. U and B work at same place. 

Question:

Which of the following is at same post with C? 

  1. E

  2. W

  3. Z

  4. A

  5. G

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

21 persons work in bank at different post. The posts are in decreasing order i.e., Chairman, GM, Manager, AM, PO and Clerk. It is known that in any post the number of persons posted were one more than the number of persons posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 person works as a PO then 5 persons work as a clerk. E works as a manager and is just senior to Z. C and G work at same post and were senior to E. F, Q and R work at same post and were junior to Z. A is just junior to W but just senior to R. P, T and Y work at same post but not with A. V is junior to Z but senior to J. K and O work at same post but does not work as a clerk. S does not work along with U and P. D is senior to M and junior to S. U and B work at same place. 

Question:

How many persons were at same post with Y (excluding Y)?

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5

  5. 1

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

21 persons work in bank at different post. The posts are in decreasing order i.e., Chairman, GM, Manager, AM, PO and Clerk. It is known that in any post the number of persons posted were one more than the number of persons posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 person works as a PO then 5 persons work as a clerk. E works as a manager and is just senior to Z. C and G work at same post and were senior to E. F, Q and R work at same post and were junior to Z. A is just junior to W but just senior to R. P, T and Y work at same post but not with A. V is junior to Z but senior to J. K and O work at same post but does not work as a clerk. S does not work along with U and P. D is senior to M and junior to S. U and B work at same place. 

Question:

Who among the following works as manager?

  1. Z

  2. D

  3. E

  4. More than one option

  5. None of these

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions: 

21 persons work in bank at different post. The posts are in decreasing order i.e., Chairman, GM, Manager, AM, PO and Clerk. It is known that in any post the number of persons posted were one more than the number of persons posted in the immediate senior post. For example: If 4 person works as a PO then 5 persons work as a clerk. E works as a manager and is just senior to Z. C and G work at same post and were senior to E. F, Q and R work at same post and were junior to Z. A is just junior to W but just senior to R. P, T and Y work at same post but not with A. V is junior to Z but senior to J. K and O work at same post but does not work as a clerk. S does not work along with U and P. D is senior to M and junior to S. U and B work at same place. 

Question:

How many persons are junior to S? 

  1. 6

  2. 11

  3. 15

  4. 18

  5. 20

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Eight persons A to H live in a four Storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1. Each floor consists of two flats i.e., Flat P and Flat Q. Flat P is to the west of Flat Q. Only one person lives in each flat. Each of them like different games i.e., cricket, chess, tennis, volleyball, skating, basketball, football and hockey, not necessarily in the same order. Floor 2 of flat P is just above the floor 1 of flat P and so on. C lives on second floor and lives just below the person who likes chess. One floor is between the person who likes skating and football and both of them live in flat P. The person who likes Tennis and A lives on same floor but different flat. One floor is between the person who likes cricket and A. Number of floors above D is same as number of floors below G, who lives below D in different flat. The person who likes basketball lives in west of E. No person lives in west of the person who likes chess and C. The person who likes volleyball lives two floors above B. F does not like skating. The person who likes cricket lives on an odd number floor. B lives just below H. 

Question:

How many floors are between A and E?

  1. None 

  2. One 

  3. Two 

  4. Can't be determined 

  5. None of the above 

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Eight persons A to H live in a four Storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1. Each floor consists of two flats i.e., Flat P and Flat Q. Flat P is to the west of Flat Q. Only one person lives in each flat. Each of them like different games i.e., cricket, chess, tennis, volleyball, skating, basketball, football and hockey, not necessarily in the same order. Floor 2 of flat P is just above the floor 1 of flat P and so on. C lives on second floor and lives just below the person who likes chess. One floor is between the person who likes skating and football and both of them live in flat P. The person who likes Tennis and A lives on same floor but different flat. One floor is between the person who likes cricket and A. Number of floors above D is same as number of floors below G, who lives below D in different flat. The person who likes basketball lives in west of E. No person lives in west of the person who likes chess and C. The person who likes volleyball lives two floors above B. F does not like skating. The person who likes cricket lives on an odd number floor. B lives just below H. 

Question:

Which of the following statement is true?

  1. E likes hockey.

  2. B lives on 3rd floor. 

  3. D lives just above H.

  4. C lives on 1st floor. 

  5. None of these 

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Eight persons A to H live in a four Storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1. Each floor consists of two flats i.e., Flat P and Flat Q. Flat P is to the west of Flat Q. Only one person lives in each flat. Each of them like different games i.e., cricket, chess, tennis, volleyball, skating, basketball, football and hockey, not necessarily in the same order. Floor 2 of flat P is just above the floor 1 of flat P and so on. C lives on second floor and lives just below the person who likes chess. One floor is between the person who likes skating and football and both of them live in flat P. The person who likes Tennis and A lives on same floor but different flat. One floor is between the person who likes cricket and A. Number of floors above D is same as number of floors below G, who lives below D in different flat. The person who likes basketball lives in west of E. No person lives in west of the person who likes chess and C. The person who likes volleyball lives two floors above B. F does not like skating. The person who likes cricket lives on an odd number floor. B lives just below H. 

Question:

H likes which game? 

  1. Volleyball 

  2. Chess 

  3. Hockey

  4. Skating 

  5. Tennis 

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Eight persons A to H live in a four Storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1. Each floor consists of two flats i.e., Flat P and Flat Q. Flat P is to the west of Flat Q. Only one person lives in each flat. Each of them like different games i.e., cricket, chess, tennis, volleyball, skating, basketball, football and hockey, not necessarily in the same order. Floor 2 of flat P is just above the floor 1 of flat P and so on. C lives on second floor and lives just below the person who likes chess. One floor is between the person who likes skating and football and both of them live in flat P. The person who likes Tennis and A lives on same floor but different flat. One floor is between the person who likes cricket and A. Number of floors above D is same as number of floors below G, who lives below D in different flat. The person who likes basketball lives in west of E. No person lives in west of the person who likes chess and C. The person who likes volleyball lives two floors above B. F does not like skating. The person who likes cricket lives on an odd number floor. B lives just below H. 

Question:

Who likes football? 

  1. The one who lives just above A

  2. The one who lives just below B 

  3. C

  4. D

  5. G

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a company XYZ, during the training program few organizations are organized in a day for different departments i.e., HR, IT and Admin. Two HR, Two IT and one Admin orientation session with each session being of 1 hour. Also, for the new joinee a two-hour departmental training is organized on this day. These sessions are organized from 10 am to 7 pm. Two breaks are there between these sessions, 1pm to 2 pm lunch and 5 pm to 6 pm tea

None of the same department orientation are consecutive including breaks (for example: If HR orientation is at 12 pm slot then the other HR orientation can't be at 2 pm nor 11 pm slot). None of the HR orientation is after tea. Xena, who was the invigilator of these orientation session, left the departmental training session at 4: 30 pm due to some personal reason for few minutes. First slot is not of HR. Last slot is of IT orientation. Admin session is just before one of the breaks. 

Question:

Which sessions are between the two breaks?

  1. HR and Admin

  2. Admin and Departmental training

  3.  IT and HR

  4. IT and Departmental training 

  5. HR and Departmental training

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

In a company XYZ, during the training program few organizations are organized in a day for different departments i.e., HR, IT and Admin. Two HR, Two IT and one Admin orientation session with each session being of 1 hour. Also, for the new joinee a two-hour departmental training is organized on this day. These sessions are organized from 10 am to 7 pm. Two breaks are there between these sessions, 1pm to 2 pm lunch and 5 pm to 6 pm tea

None of the same department orientation are consecutive including breaks (for example: If HR orientation is at 12 pm slot then the other HR orientation can't be at 2 pm nor 11 pm slot). None of the HR orientation is after tea. Xena, who was the invigilator of these orientation session, left the departmental training session at 4: 30 pm due to some personal reason for few minutes. First slot is not of HR. Last slot is of IT orientation. Admin session is just before one of the breaks. 

Question:

How many sessions are there between the two IT sessions excluding breaks ?

  1. 3

  2. 4

  3. 5

  4. 6

  5. 2

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Nine persons Arnold, Barry, Charlie, Dove, Erwin, Frank, Gerald, Henry and John was born in different years on the same date in the month of June. Calculation is done from the base year of 2022. No person is younger than 5 years nor older than 75 years. Note: If it's given age of "A" is equal to the last two digit of the birth year of B then it can be the last digits or the reverse of last two digits. 

Arnold was born in the year 1985. Age difference between Erwin and Frank is 12 years. Barry's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Arnold. Charlie's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Barry. Dove's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Charlie. Erwin's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Dove. Gerald's age is sum of the digits of birth year of Frank. John is 6 years younger than Gerald. Henry is 9 years younger than Gerald. 

Question:

Find the odd one out.

  1. Gerald 

  2. Frank 

  3. Henry 

  4. Erwin 

  5. Arnold

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Nine persons Arnold, Barry, Charlie, Dove, Erwin, Frank, Gerald, Henry and John was born in different years on the same date in the month of June. Calculation is done from the base year of 2022. No person is younger than 5 years nor older than 75 years. Note: If it's given age of "A" is equal to the last two digit of the birth year of B then it can be the last digits or the reverse of last two digits. 

Arnold was born in the year 1985. Age difference between Erwin and Frank is 12 years. Barry's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Arnold. Charlie's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Barry. Dove's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Charlie. Erwin's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Dove. Gerald's age is sum of the digits of birth year of Frank. John is 6 years younger than Gerald. Henry is 9 years younger than Gerald. 

Question:

Who is the eldest person among them?

  1. Arnold

  2. Barry 

  3. Charlie 

  4. Dove 

  5. Erwin

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Nine persons Arnold, Barry, Charlie, Dove, Erwin, Frank, Gerald, Henry and John was born in different years on the same date in the month of June. Calculation is done from the base year of 2022. No person is younger than 5 years nor older than 75 years. Note: If it's given age of "A" is equal to the last two digit of the birth year of B then it can be the last digits or the reverse of last two digits. 

Arnold was born in the year 1985. Age difference between Erwin and Frank is 12 years. Barry's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Arnold. Charlie's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Barry. Dove's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Charlie. Erwin's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Dove. Gerald's age is sum of the digits of birth year of Frank. John is 6 years younger than Gerald. Henry is 9 years younger than Gerald. 

Question:

Erwin was born in which year?

  1. 1962

  2. 1960 

  3. 1953 

  4. 1967 

  5. 1979

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Nine persons Arnold, Barry, Charlie, Dove, Erwin, Frank, Gerald, Henry and John was born in different years on the same date in the month of June. Calculation is done from the base year of 2022. No person is younger than 5 years nor older than 75 years. Note: If it's given age of "A" is equal to the last two digit of the birth year of B then it can be the last digits or the reverse of last two digits. 

Arnold was born in the year 1985. Age difference between Erwin and Frank is 12 years. Barry's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Arnold. Charlie's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Barry. Dove's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Charlie. Erwin's age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of Dove. Gerald's age is sum of the digits of birth year of Frank. John is 6 years younger than Gerald. Henry is 9 years younger than Gerald. 

Question:

What is the difference of age between youngest and 3rd eldest?

  1. 31

  2. 26

  3. 24

  4. 38

  5. 22

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A number and word arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers and words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement

Input: 2193 4638 1825 2437 4769 5225

Step I: 1825 2193 2437 4638 4769 5225 S

tep II: 1258 1239 2347 3468 4679 2255

Step III: 313 312 511 714 1016 410

Step IV: 9 6 5 28 6 0 Step V: 28 9 6 6 5 0

Step V is the last step.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input: 6482 5113 9438 2799 6619 4431

Question:

What is the sum of the digits of last three numbers in step V?

  1. 26

  2. 28

  3. 14

  4. 18

  5. None of these

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A number and word arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers and words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement

Input: 2193 4638 1825 2437 4769 5225

Step I: 1825 2193 2437 4638 4769 5225 S

tep II: 1258 1239 2347 3468 4679 2255

Step III: 313 312 511 714 1016 410

Step IV: 9 6 5 28 6 0 Step V: 28 9 6 6 5 0

Step V is the last step.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input: 6482 5113 9438 2799 6619 4431

Question:

What is the addition of the largest number and the smallest number in step IV? 

  1. 82

  2. 88

  3. 102

  4. 84

  5. 40

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A number and word arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers and words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement

Input: 2193 4638 1825 2437 4769 5225

Step I: 1825 2193 2437 4638 4769 5225 S

tep II: 1258 1239 2347 3468 4679 2255

Step III: 313 312 511 714 1016 410

Step IV: 9 6 5 28 6 0 Step V: 28 9 6 6 5 0

Step V is the last step.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input: 6482 5113 9438 2799 6619 4431

Question:

What is the product of second digit of the second number from the left end and third digit of the third number from the right end in step III?

  1. 40

  2. 35

  3. 32

  4. 72

  5. 30

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A number and word arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers and words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement

Input: 2193 4638 1825 2437 4769 5225

Step I: 1825 2193 2437 4638 4769 5225 S

tep II: 1258 1239 2347 3468 4679 2255

Step III: 313 312 511 714 1016 410

Step IV: 9 6 5 28 6 0 Step V: 28 9 6 6 5 0

Step V is the last step.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find the steps required to rearrange the given input and answer the questions based on it.

Input: 6482 5113 9438 2799 6619 4431

Question:

What is the difference between second largest number in step I and second smallest number in step II?

  1. 4376 

  2. 5375 

  3. 3755 

  4. 7355 

  5. 5275

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Statement: “Sudden decline in GST tax collection pulled down overall rise in gross direct tax mobilization in the first half of the current year, ruling out any pickup in growth in the first quarter of the year, indicating that the government will find it difficult to meet its tax target for this year.” Inferences:

(I) GST tax collection rise only in the first quarter of the current year.

(II) Industrial production and development slowed down in the first half of the year.

(III) The government has achieved the target of corporate as well as GST tax collection in comparison to previous year.

(IV) Poor tax collection in the GST tax collection pulled down the economy of our country.

(V) The government is likely to face difficulties in achieving the target of collection of GST tax due to slowdown in production and the government has forecast a growth in GST tax. 

Which of the inferences numbered (I), (II), (III), (IV), and (V) can be concluded from the fact/information given in the statement?

  1. Only II

  2. Only II and V 

  3. Only III and IV

  4. Only IV

  5. Only III

Direction: In the question below is a statement followed by some conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: Computers can finish the task with the help of coding languages which are comprehensible for human beings but the computer needs the compiler software to read those commands.

What are the conclusions that will be derived from the above passage? 

  1. Computers can work by themselves to complete a task. 

  2. Humans need to train the computers to do a certain task by using the specific commands. 

  3. Both options (IV) and (V) follow.

  4. Computer systems use certain conversion methods to read the codes. 

  5. Computers cannot do the tasks without the help of the compiler software. 

Directions: Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the question that follows :

Statement: Players like Amazon and Flipkart as well as industry watchers noted that the need for social distancing and prioritizing safety during the pandemic led to millions of people turning to e-commerce platforms this past year, not only in metros but also in tier III regions and beyond. Inferences:

(I) The pandemic brought about a "structural shift" in shopping behavior with more and more customers and businesses relying on e-commerce.

(II) The Indian e-commerce market has been one of the biggest beneficiaries of the pandemic.

(III) The new normal of working and learning from home also fueled demand for consumer electronic products.

  1. Only III follows 

  2. Only I and III follow

  3. Only II follows 

  4. Only I and either II or III follows 

  5. Only I and II follow 

Directions: In the question, the statement is given followed by some inferences. You must consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You must decide which of the given inference, if any, is a strong argument.

Statement: Aishwarya likes to write from a very young age especially, she likes to write poetries. She also maintains a journal for her poetries which she plans to publish as an anthology. 

What are the facts that can be inferred from the above passage?

  1. Aishwarya always likes to write poetry

  2. Aishwarya has written many poems 

  3. Aishwarya has good poetic skills 

  4. Aishwarya is planning to publish an anthology

  5. Aishwarya had an inborn talent to write poetry

Directions: Read the given statement and with that information answer the following question carefully:

After GST and demonetization, rising interest rates are set to hurt SMEs. Interest rates for loans against property (LAP) extended to small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) are set to rise in the coming months of 2018. ‘Rising interest rates, in addition to the muted operating environment for small businesses in India, will lead to an increase in delinquencies on LAP extended to SMEs’. The introduction of the goods and services tax (GST) in July 2017 and the government's demonetization policy have placed stress on the SME sector, which rising interest rates will exacerbate.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above? 

  1. In addition to rising delinquencies over the last few years would force lenders to be more cautious while underwriting loans. This would limit refinancing options, adversely affecting existing borrowers.

  2. But losses will be limited because these loans are secured and have relatively low loan-to-value ratios. 

  3. Rising interest rates will limit refinancing options and increase repayment amounts, increasing risks for asset backed securities (ABS) backed by LAP to SMEs. 

  4. The ABS (asset backed securities) backed by LAP extended to SMEs have non-amortizing cash reserves, substantial excess spread and the possibility to extend the life of the loans and hence the life of the transactions

  5. None can be inferred

Directions: Read the passage given below carefully and answer the given question: Statement: An oil painting by the late Chinese French artist Zao Wou Ki became the most expensive oil painting ever sold at auction by an Asian artist. The painting fetched $65 million in the auction at Sotheby’s Hong Kong.

Which of the following does not support the statement?

I: The oil painting by the late Chinese-French artist became the most expensive oil painting ever sold at auction.

II: The auction at Sotheby’s Hong Kong on the painting fetched $65 million which is the highest till date for any artist. III: Zao Wou-Ki was an Asian artist to ever sell the most expensive oil painting. 

  1. Only I 

  2. Only II

  3. Only I and II 

  4. Only II and III 

  5. All of the above

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of students present in different sections of 5th class of a school on Monday. 

Note:

1. Difference between the number of students present in section 'A' and section 'B' is 4.

2. In each of the sections 'B', 'C', 'D', and 'E', the total number of students (Present + Absent) is less than 51.

3. No section has full attendance.

Question:

If absent students in section 'A' is 40% more than the present students and the ratio of absent students (Boys + Girls) is 5 : 3, then find the absent girl students in section 'A' is what percentage of the total present students in section 'C'?

  1. 40% 

  2. 50% 

  3. 60%

  4. 70% 

  5. 80%

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of students present in different sections of 5th class of a school on Monday. 

Note:

1. Difference between the number of students present in section 'A' and section 'B' is 4.

2. In each of the sections 'B', 'C', 'D', and 'E', the total number of students (Present + Absent) is less than 51.

3. No section has full attendance.

Question:

If 10 students who were present in section 'A', shifted to section 'C', then what is the sum of the maximum and minimum possible total (present + absent) students in section 'C'? 

  1. 40

  2. 41

  3. 50

  4. 90

  5. 91

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of students present in different sections of 5th class of a school on Monday. 

Note:

1. Difference between the number of students present in section 'A' and section 'B' is 4.

2. In each of the sections 'B', 'C', 'D', and 'E', the total number of students (Present + Absent) is less than 51.

3. No section has full attendance.

Question:

What is the difference between the maximum possible value of absent students in section 'B' and 3rd minimum possible value of absent students in section 'E'?

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5

  5. 6

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of students present in different sections of 5th class of a school on Monday. 

Note:

1. Difference between the number of students present in section 'A' and section 'B' is 4.

2. In each of the sections 'B', 'C', 'D', and 'E', the total number of students (Present + Absent) is less than 51.

3. No section has full attendance.

Question:

If the value of absent students in section 'C' is greater than 7 and the total number of students (present + absent) in section 'C' is a 'square' number, then what is the difference between the absent students in section 'C' and total present students in section 'A' and section 'E' together?

  1. 61

  2. 62

  3. 63

  4. 64

  5. 65

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of students present in different sections of 5th class of a school on Monday. 

Note:

1. Difference between the number of students present in section 'A' and section 'B' is 4.

2. In each of the sections 'B', 'C', 'D', and 'E', the total number of students (Present + Absent) is less than 51.

3. No section has full attendance.

Question:

If it is given that the sum of maximum and minimum possible values of absent students in section 'D' is 4, then what is the maximum total number of students (Present + absent) in section 'D'? 

  1. 46

  2. 47

  3. 48

  4. 49

  5. 50

A question is followed by 2 statements. Study the following statements carefully and state whether they are sufficient to answer the question.

A student appears in an examination where his marks in biology is 20 marks more than what he got in Physics. Find his marks in biology?

Statement I – Average marks of Physics and Chemistry is 71.5. The ratio of marks of Practical and Theory in Physics is 6 : 5 and in chemistry, it is 15 : 7.

Statement II –Ratio of marks obtained in the theory exam of physics and chemistry is 1 : 2. The ratio of marks of Physics and Chemistry is 5 : 8. 

  1. Statement I alone is sufficient

  2. Statement II alone is sufficient

  3. Neither of the statement is sufficient

  4. Both I and II together is sufficient

  5. Either I or II is sufficient

A train can cross a car which is running with speed 40 km/h in same direction as that of train in 18 seconds while the train can cross a platform of length half of the length of train in 13.5 seconds, then what is the length of the platform? 

  1. 150 m 

  2. 100 m 

  3. 120 m 

  4. 80 m

  5. None of these

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The line graph given below shows the total number of members (Males + Females) in four fitness 

Question:

If in gym 'B', the percentage increase of the gym members from 2001 to 2003 is x%, from 2003 to 2004 is 20% and from 2004 to 2005 is 25% then find the value of 'x' ?(approximately)

  1. 75.5% 

  2. 76.5% 

  3. 77.5% 

  4. 79.5% 

  5. 80.5%

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The line graph given below shows the total number of members (Males + Females) in four fitness 

Question:

If in gym 'B', an equal number of members joined in 2002, 2003 and 2004 and from 2001 and 2005 only 5 people left the gym, then find the number of people who joined in 2002. (Assume no other gym member left or joined in any given year other than the given data)

  1. 31

  2. 32

  3. 33

  4. 34

  5. 35

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The line graph given below shows the total number of members (Males + Females) in four fitness 

Question:

If the total number of male gym members in gym 'C' and gym 'A' together in 2001 is 100 and in 2001, the total number of male members in gym 'A' was 75% of the total gym members in gym 'B' in 2001, then find the total number of female gym members in gym 'C' in 2001 is what percent of the total number of gym members in gym 'C' in 2005? 

  1. 71.25%

  2. 72.50%

  3. 73.75%

  4. 74.25%

  5. 75.75%

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The line graph given below shows the total number of members (Males + Females) in four fitness 

Question:

If in 2005, the ratio of the number of female to male gym members in gym 'C' is 9 : 7 respectively and only in the year 2004 few members left the gym in which the number of females was 15%, then how many female members were there initially in gym 'C' in 2001?

  1. 51

  2. 52

  3. 53

  4. 54

  5. 55

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The line graph given below shows the total number of members (Males + Females) in four fitness 

Question:

In 2002, in gym D, the percentage increase of total members from the previous year is 25% in which males are 37.5% of the new gym members who joined and the new male members are 20% more than the number of male members present in the previous year. In 2004, 20 female members joined the gym. Find the ratio of the number of female members initially in 2001 and the number of female members in 2005. (Assume no other member joined or left in any year other than the given data)

  1. 59 : 79 

  2. 61 : 79 

  3. 67 : 79 

  4. 71 : 79 

  5. 73 : 79

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are four companies A, B, C, and D. Data given below shows the number of products sold and unsold by these shopkeepers. 

The total number of products manufactured by 'A' is 120, and the ratio of sold and unsold products of company 'B' is 3 : 1. The total number of products manufactured by company 'B' and 'D' is 260, and the difference between the number of unsold and sold products by 'C' is 90. The total number of products manufactured by 'C' is 150 which is 12 less than that of products sold by 'D'. The difference between the products unsold by 'B' and 'D' is 2. The number of products sold by 'A' is x% as that of 'B'.

Note : The number of products sold by each company is more than that of products unsold. 

Question:

If the total number of products sold by all companies together is 432, then find the number of unsold products by company 'D' is how much percent more or less that of 'A'? 

  1. 25% 

  2. 30% 

  3. 40% 

  4. 50%

  5. 60%

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are four companies A, B, C, and D. Data given below shows the number of products sold and unsold by these shopkeepers. 

The total number of products manufactured by 'A' is 120, and the ratio of sold and unsold products of company 'B' is 3 : 1. The total number of products manufactured by company 'B' and 'D' is 260, and the difference between the number of unsold and sold products by 'C' is 90. The total number of products manufactured by 'C' is 150 which is 12 less than that of products sold by 'D'. The difference between the products unsold by 'B' and 'D' is 2. The number of products sold by 'A' is x% as that of 'B'.

Note : The number of products sold by each company is more than that of products unsold. 

Question:

If the number of products sold b

  1. 120%

  2. 125% 

  3. 133.33%

  4. 150%

  5. 166.66%

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are four companies A, B, C, and D. Data given below shows the number of products sold and unsold by these shopkeepers. 

The total number of products manufactured by 'A' is 120, and the ratio of sold and unsold products of company 'B' is 3 : 1. The total number of products manufactured by company 'B' and 'D' is 260, and the difference between the number of unsold and sold products by 'C' is 90. The total number of products manufactured by 'C' is 150 which is 12 less than that of products sold by 'D'. The difference between the products unsold by 'B' and 'D' is 2. The number of products sold by 'A' is x% as that of 'B'.

Note : The number of products sold by each company is more than that of products unsold. 

Question:

If the number of products unsold by 'A' is 30, and the number of products manufactured by 'E' is thrice that of company 'D', then find the number of unsold products of company 'E', if the sold products of company 'E' is 2x. 

  1. 60

  2. 80

  3. 100

  4. 120

  5. 240

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are four companies A, B, C, and D. Data given below shows the number of products sold and unsold by these shopkeepers. 

The total number of products manufactured by 'A' is 120, and the ratio of sold and unsold products of company 'B' is 3 : 1. The total number of products manufactured by company 'B' and 'D' is 260, and the difference between the number of unsold and sold products by 'C' is 90. The total number of products manufactured by 'C' is 150 which is 12 less than that of products sold by 'D'. The difference between the products unsold by 'B' and 'D' is 2. The number of products sold by 'A' is x% as that of 'B'.

Note : The number of products sold by each company is more than that of products unsold. 

Question:

f the difference between the number of products sold by 'C' and the total products manufactured by 'D' is 'Y' and the total number of products manufactured by 'B' is 'Z', then 'Y' is how much percent more or less than that of 'Z'? 

  1. 20%

  2. 25% 

  3. 33.33% 

  4. 37.5%

  5. 50%

Consider the following number series and answer the question based on this.

18, 10, 12, 27, x, p

z + 4 = x - 27

Question:

Find the value of p? 

  1. 899 

  2. 900 

  3. 901 

  4. 902

  5.  903

Consider the following number series and answer the question based on this.

18, 10, 12, 27, x, p

z + 4 = x - 27

Question:

Which of the following is true about the value of z?

  1. z is an even number.

  2. z is a prime number. 

  3. z is a perfect square number. 

  4. z is greater than 90. 

  5. Sum of digits of z is more than 20.

Consider the following number series and answer the question based on this.

18, 10, 12, 27, x, p

z + 4 = x - 27

Question:

Series I : 14, x, 37, 53, 72

Series II : 48, x, 26, 53, 213, 1705

Series III : 8, 15, x, 35, 48, 63 The value of x is 24.

In which of the following series 'x' is not satisfied properly?

  1. Only I 

  2. Only II

  3. Only III 

  4. Only I and II 

  5. Only II and III

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies and funds denoted by each company to 3 different NGOs.

Note :

(1) Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100.

(2) Ratio between the total funds of company 'W' to company 'Y' is 4 : 5 respectively.

(3) Some of the values are missing.

Question:

If the fund donated to NGO 'B' by company 'W' was distributed to an orphan child and elder person in 9 : 7 respectively, then find the difference between the fund donated to the elder person of NGO 'B' and the total fund of company 'X'?

  1. Rs. 7115

  2. Rs. 7215 

  3. Rs. 7315 

  4. Rs. 7415 

  5. Rs. 7515

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies and funds denoted by each company to 3 different NGOs.

Note :

(1) Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100.

(2) Ratio between the total funds of company 'W' to company 'Y' is 4 : 5 respectively.

(3) Some of the values are missing.

Question:

If the total fund of company 'X' is part of their 'actual plan' and it is only 40% of their actual fund then the total fund donated to NGO 'A' and NGO 'B' by company 'X' is what percent of their actual fund?

  1. 30% 

  2. 31% 

  3. 32%

  4. 33% 

  5. 34%

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies and funds denoted by each company to 3 different NGOs.

Note :

(1) Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100.

(2) Ratio between the total funds of company 'W' to company 'Y' is 4 : 5 respectively.

(3) Some of the values are missing.

Question:

If 20% of the fund donated to NGO 'B' by the company 'Y' was utilized in 'women's development and the rest was for 'rural development' then find the ratio between the fund utilized in women's development by NGO 'B' and fund donated by company 'Z' to NGO 'B'?

  1. 20 : 101

  2. 20 : 103 

  3. 20 : 107 

  4. 20 : 111

  5. 20 : 117

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies and funds denoted by each company to 3 different NGOs.

Note :

(1) Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100.

(2) Ratio between the total funds of company 'W' to company 'Y' is 4 : 5 respectively.

(3) Some of the values are missing.

Question:

If the fund donated by company Z in NGO 'A' and NGO 'C' was in the ratio of 4 : 5, then find the fund donated to NGO 'C' was what percent of the total fund of company 'Z'?

  1. 13.33% 

  2. 16.66% 

  3. 26.66%

  4. 33.33%

  5. 42.22%

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies and funds denoted by each company to 3 different NGOs.

Note :

(1) Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100.

(2) Ratio between the total funds of company 'W' to company 'Y' is 4 : 5 respectively.

(3) Some of the values are missing.

Question:

If another company 'V' has a fund that was 30% more than that of company 'Y' and company 'V' donated 30%, 25%, and 45% to NGO 'A', NGO 'B', and NGO 'C' respectively then find the sum of the fund donated to NGO 'C' by company 'V' and fund donated to NGO 'A' by company 'X'?

  1. Rs. 11871

  2. Rs. 12871 

  3. Rs. 13871 

  4. Rs. 14871

  5. Rs. 15871

In this question two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

I. x2 – 17x + 72 = 0

II. y2 – 17y + 70 = 0 

  1. x > y 

  2. x < y 

  3. x ≥ y

  4. x ≤ y 

  5. x = y or no relationship could be established

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer

I. x2 – 56x + 343 = 0

II. 2y2 + 23y + 60 = 0

  1. x > y 

  2. y ≤ x 

  3. y ≥ x 

  4. x < y

  5. Either x = y or Relation between x and y cannot be established.

Direction: In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 – 5x + 6 = 0

II. y2 – 9y + 20 = 0 

  1. x > y

  2. x < y 

  3. x ≥ y 

  4. x ≤ y 

  5. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer:

I. x2 - 2x - 35 = 0

II. y2 + y - 42 = 0

  1. x > y 

  2. y ≤ x

  3. y ≥ x 

  4. x < y 

  5. Either x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer

I. 2x2 - 13x + 21 = 0

II. 3y2 -16y + 21 = 0 

  1. x > y 

  2. y ≤ x

  3. y ≥ x 

  4. x < y

  5. Either x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established.

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

79.99 × 24.14 × 6.97 ÷ 27.98 = ? + 38.99

  1. 31

  2. 29

  3. 19

  4. 23

  5. 21

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

17.77% of 399.99 + 42.14% of 249.99 = ? – 15.99% of 199.98 

  1. 219

  2. 209 

  3. 229 

  4. 199

  5. 239 

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(6.95 × 7.988) – (12.004× √9.012) = ? – 10.895

  1. 40

  2. 45

  3. 31

  4. 25

  5. 37

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(45.875 – 34.75) × (23.89 – 15.99) = ? + (34.87 – 17.98)

  1. 80

  2. 65

  3. 71

  4. 75

  5. 78

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly. An alloy contains zinc and copper in the ratio of 12:11 respectively. Find the original quantity of copper in the alloy?

Statement I: If 20% of the alloy is replaced with the same quantity of copper then the ratio of the zinc to copper becomes 48:67.

Statement II: If 125 kg of copper is added to the alloy, then the ratio of zinc to copper becomes 3:4. 

  1. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

  2. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly. The ratio of the cost prices of articles 'A', 'B' and 'C' is 8 : 5 : 3.The percentage by which article 'A', article 'B' and article 'C' are marked up is 80%, 60%, and 40% respectively. Find the cost price of article 'C' ?

Statement (I) : The ratio of the selling prices of article 'A', article 'B', and article 'C' is 10 : 7 : 13.

Statement (II) : Total profit earned on the three articles is Rs. 120 less than the total discount given on the three articles together.

  1.  The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

  2. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

  3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 

Directions: Given question contains a statement followed by two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

If a5 = 32 and b6 = 64

Quantity I: Value of b.

Quantity II: Value of a

  1. Quantity I > Quantity II 

  2. Quantity II > Quantity I

  3. Quantity II ≥ Quantity I

  4. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 

  5. Cannot be determined 

A receives 1/15th of the total profit and the remaining is divided between B and C in the ratio of 3 : 4. If the difference between the profit shares of C and A is Rs. 2800. What is B’s share? 

  1. Rs. 2000 

  2. Rs. 2200 

  3. Rs. 2300 

  4. Rs. 2400 

  5. None of these

Narender can do 4/5th of work in 20 days. The efficiency of Ajay is 25% more than that of Narender. Both Narender and Ajay started working together and left the work after five days. Neha completed the remaining work in 11 days. The efficiency of Neha is how much percent more/less than that of Narender? 

  1. 25% less 

  2. 20% less 

  3. 20% more 

  4. 25% more

  5. None of these

A bag contains 8 red and 5 blue balls. Two balls are drawn randomly. Find the probability that one ball is red and other is blue. 

  1. 20/39 

  2. 10/29 

  3. 25/39 

  4. 1/13 

  5. None of the above

Difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 7200 for 2 years at x% per annum is Rs. 200. Find the value of x.

  1. 15% 

  2. 15 1/3 %

  3. 16 2/3 %

  4. 18% 

  5. None of the above

The total time taken by the boat to go 'x' km upstream and then return back to a certain distance is 6 hours. The ratio of the speed boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 8 : 1, respectively. If the upstream distance covered is 50 km more than the downstream distance covered and the boat can cover (3x + 60) km in still water in 12 hours, then find the value of 'x'? 

  1. 120 km 

  2. 128 km 

  3. 140 km 

  4. 150 km 

  5. 158 km 

A person can cover a distance between A and B at a speed of 45 km/hr. On the return journey, he covers 180 km with 30 km/hr, and after that, he takes a different route on the return journey which increases his total distance by 15 km. If the speed of the car on the extended route is 60 km/hr. If it takes 90 min more while returning then find the distance between A and B.

  1. 310 km

  2. 315 km

  3. 320 km 

  4. 325 km 

  5. 330 km

The age of the mother 4 years ago was 6 times the age of her son at that time. The age of the mother after 6 years will be 8/3 times the age of the son at the time. Find the difference between the mother's age after 2 years and the present age of the son.

  1. 2 : 3

  2. 3 : 2

  3. 4 : 1

  4. 5 : 2

  5. 6 : 5

The volume of a cylinder is 13552 cm3 and the diameter of the cylinder is equal to the side of a square whose perimeter is 112 cm. Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.

  1. 1345 cm2

  2. 1540 cm2 

  3. 1856 cm2 

  4. 1936 cm2 

  5. 2090 cm2

There are 6 consecutive odd numbers. If the product of the 1st and the 2nd number is 483, then find the average of all the numbers. 

  1. 22

  2. 24

  3. 26

  4. 27

  5. 28

The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 8 : 5 and the average age of the whole class is 'x' and the average age of girls is 'x-2' then find the average age of boys in the class. 

  1. x - 1.25

  2. x + 1.25

  3. x + 2 

  4. x - 2 

  5. x + 2.5

Profit earned on an article when it is sold for Rs. 672 is 25% more than the loss when it is sold for Rs. 470.4. If a person marked up the article by 50% on purchasing price and sold it after allowing two successive discounts of 20%. Find the selling price of the article.

  1. Rs. 534.4 

  2. Rs. 536.5 

  3. Rs. 537.6

  4. Rs. 538.7 

  5. Rs. 539.8

Profit earned on selling a table for Rs. 'X + 1600' is 50% more than the loss incurred on selling the table for Rs. 'X + 100'. Had the table been sold for Rs. 'X', there would have been a loss of 43.75%. What is the cost price of the table?

  1. Rs. 1500

  2. Rs. 1600 

  3. Rs. 1800

  4. Rs. 2000 

  5. Rs. 2400

Yash spends 25% of his monthly salary on EMI. From the remaining, he spends 30% on the rent, 10% on food, 45% on groceries, and 15% on video blogging. If the difference between the amount spend on EMI and food is Rs. 945 then find the monthly salary of Yash.

  1. Rs. 5200 

  2. Rs. 5300 

  3. Rs. 5400 

  4. Rs. 5500 

  5. Rs. 5600

The question consists of two statements numbered “I” and “II” given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not and choose the correct option accordingly. Find the time of the journey of Kush to reach school on time from his home given that the distance between his home and school is 280 km.

Statement I: If Kush travels with a speed of (x+3) km/hr, he reaches the school from home on time.

Statement II: If Kush travels with a speed of (x-3) km/hr, he will be late by six hours. 

  1. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

  3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Download Abhipedia Android App

Access to prime resources

Downlod from playstore
download android app download android app for free

Search on abhipedia