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In a constituency, 60% of the voters are males and the rest are females. 40% of the males are illiterate and 25% of the females
are literate. By what percentage is the number of illiterate males more than that of literate females?
120%
115%
140%
125%
- Total voters: 100% of the constituency.
- Male voters: 60% of voters.
- Female voters: Remaining 40% of voters.
- Illiterate males: 40% of male voters.
- Literate females: 25% of female voters.
Let's calculate the numbers for each group:
- Illiterate males: 60% of voters are males, and out of that, 40% are illiterate.
- Illiterate males = 0.6 * 0.4 = 0.24 or 24% of the total voters.
- Literate females: 40% of voters are females, and out of that, 25% are literate.
- Literate females = 0.4 * 0.25 = 0.10 or 10% of the total voters.
Comparing the two:
- The number of illiterate males (24%) is greater than the number of literate females (10%).
- Percentage difference:
- ((24% - 10%) / 10%) * 100% = 140%
- The correct option is:
- Option 3: 140%
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