Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option (5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4), as your choice.
(A)centres for polishing /(B)diamonds and gems/(C)India is one of the largest/(D)and manufacturing jewellery/(E)retail supermarkets are expanding
CABD
CBDA
ABED
None of the above
No improvements required
Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option (5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4), as your choice.
(A)the resulting habitat loss/(B)rainforests as well as endemic rainforest species/(C)since 1965, the use of highyielding varieties of seeds/(D)and pollution of the atmosphere /(E)are rapidly disappearing due to deforestation
BEAD
ECBA
DBEC
None of the above
No improvements required
Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option (5). If the sequence is the one that is not given, then choose option (4), as your choice.
(A)philosophical ethics or moral philosophy/(B)to answer various kinds of ethical questions /(C), disciples that attempt to use reason /(D)India's infrastructure and transport sector contributes /(E)the word 'ethics' can refer to
ABCD
AECD
EACB
None of the above
No improvements required
Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option (5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4), as your choice.
(A)gardening provides /(B)of self-sufficiency/(C)British territorial expansion in India throughout the 19th century/(D)by growing your own food/(E)a powerful feeling
CBDE
ACBE
AEBD
None of these
No improvements required
Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option (5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4), as your choice. (
A)the Indian private sector was faced with increasing/(B)in the structure of experience/(C)the states of awareness are also associated with/(D)the states of experience/(E)so that the structure represented in awareness is mirrored
ABDE
CDEB
CADE
None of the above
No improvements required
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
he Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and ___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added. The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 1.
Insatiable
Separately
Grievously
Intercept
None of these
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
he Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and ___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added. The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 2.
Degenerate
Conjecture
Piteous
Modification
None of these
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
he Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and ___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added. The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 3.
Report
Recuperate
Reiterate
Fathom
Emend
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
he Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and ___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added. The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 4.
Terminate
Retort
Asked
Perpetrated
None of these
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
he Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and ___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added. The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 6.
Exhilarate
Reconcile
Discern
Refined
Existing
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:
he Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and ___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added. The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 5.
Excluding
Detached
Existing
Incorporate
Execute
Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
A COVID-19 pandemic is (A)/ an ongoing global pandemic (B)/ of coronavirus disease 2019 (C)/ caused by severe acute (D)/ respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) (E)/.
A
B
C
D
E
Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Education do not (A)/ mean teaching people (B)/ to know what they do not (C)/ know; it means teaching them (D)/ to behave as they do not behave (E)/.
A
B
C
D
E
In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.
I bought (A) some Mughal silver charming ornaments (B) at the Hauz Khas market (C) and enjoyed visiting the ruins yesterday. (D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
No error
In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are correct. Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as your answer.
My father gave me a (A)/ five hundred squares (B)/ feet house from his property (C)/so that I can live a respectful life(D)
Only A
Only B
B and C
Only C
No error
Read the following sentence and determine whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, then select ‘No Error’ as your answer.
The teacher said that(A)/ every girl in the class(B)/ must bring their own costume(C)/ to participate in the dance competition. (D)
A
B
C
D
No Error
Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
Environmentalists call up fisheries to move away from carbon-spewing engines and climate-harming practices such as bottom trawling.
call in fisheries to move away off
call at fisheries to move away from
call for fisheries to move away from
call to fisheries to move away off
No correction required
Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
A Seychelles giant tortoise, a species previously thought to be a strict herbivore, has been filmed to chase and eating a baby bird in a 'horrifying and amazing' attack, with researchers stating it was the first documented example of deliberate hunting in the wild by the species.
has been filmed to be chased and eating
have been filmed to chase and eating
has been filmed chasing and eating
have been filmed to be chasing and eaten
No correction required
In the given questions, a word in the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out of the given five options.
The firm continues to place significant significance on regulatory compliance and strives to fulfil supervisory standards, according to a press statement.
Finicky
Initiate
Utmost
Partial
Subsequent
Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? if the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.
Amount of less than a million rupees are required right now. Take the money to the bank and withdraw it.
a millions rupees are
a million rupees is
a million rupees was
a million rupees to be
No correction required
Below are some alternatives which may be used to improve the sentence by replacing the word in bold. You may choose option 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case no improvement is needed, choose 5.
Shriya’s manner was considered most judicious as outwardly she was very respectful but shut me up in the most barefaced way.
impertinent
persistent
relevant
permanent
No improvement
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
What is the highest limit on the actual balance of payments needs?
As per the requirements of the country
fifty percentage of the quota
150% of the quota
Will be decided by the executives committee
Not given in the passage
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
Which of the following word can replace (A) given in the passage?
Aside
ahead
up 4
beside
Upon
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
In which of the following sentence the word "acute" is used correctly ?
I) She is doing this work since the last two years hence she can do it acute.
II) His grand father is suffering from an acute disease.
III) There is an acute connection between political instability and civil war.
only II and III
only I
All I, II and III
only I and III
Only II
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
What is the full form of IMF?
Internation Monetary Force
International Monetary Fund
Indian Monetary force
Indian Military force
None of the Above
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
Had Russia not invaded Ukraine the prices of commodities would not have disturbed
The executive board has the power to decide the credit limit
Countries are allowed to monitor the programe if they fulfil some criteria
No access limit is finalized by the executive board
None of these
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
Which of the following is not a criteria to avail the financial assistance?
Disturbance in current balance of payment due to food insecurities
The country whose import bill saw a sharp rise
The country struggling to sell its cereals
Any country in the world which is suffering from food shortage can avail the assistance
None of these
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
The Financial aid will be provided according to the demand of the countries.
The IMF will consider the transactions between the country and rest of the world before giving any financial assistance
The access to the financial assistance will be fix in value even for future
The Financial assistance program will be a responsibility of the executive board only
The food stock window will help the affected countries till the supply chain get normalize.
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning of the word 'Exacerbated'.
intensify
amplify
reduce
augment
None of these
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The IMF Executive Board approved on September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports. Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs, capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window, currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Question:
Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word 'pushed'.
increase
drive
insolent
throes
sobriquet
The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is 2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and 9:11 respectively.
Question:
If the number of females in city A is 250 more than the number of male adults in city D, then fid the total number of female adults in city A, B and D together.
2000
1100
1700
1600
1500
The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is 2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and 9:11 respectively.
Question:
The total number of children in city B is what percentage of the total number of children in city D?
35%
66.66%
40%
50%
55%
The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is 2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and 9:11 respectively.
Question:
The total number of children in city A and C together is what percentage more or less than the number of male adults in city C?
25% less
22.6% more
24% more
22.6% less
None of these
The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is 2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and 9:11 respectively.
Question:
Find the ratio of the total female adults in all four cities and the male adults of cities A and B together.
40:31
35:46
51:37
47:36
46:35
The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is 2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and 9:11 respectively.
Question:
The number of female adults in city B is what percentage of the total number of adults in city D?
45%
35%
25%
55%
60%
What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
19.99% of 119.99 + ?216.06 – √624.99 = ?
3
15
12
5
10
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
(√63.99) × 149.99% – 175.99 ÷ 22.22 = ?
4
6
8
12
2
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (
76.87 × 10.99 ÷ 6.97 + 1.99) ÷ ?26.99 = ?
35
39
41
53
49
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
49.827% of 1119.61 - ?% of 1600.092 = 79.762
20
25
32
30
24
What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question
(34.85)2 - (18.99)2 - (5.01)3 = ?
739
673
591
807
617
A can complete a work in 60 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. They work together for 15 days. C alone completes the remaining work in 14 days. B and C together will complete 5/8th part of the original work in:
15 days
10 days
18 days
12 days
21 days
The ratio of speed of boat in still water and the current speed is 4:3, distance covered by boat in downstream speed and upstream speed is 126km each. find the speed of boat in still water if total time taken by boat in both downstream and upstream speed is 48 hours ?
16 km/hr
9 km/hr
10.5 km/hr
3 km/hr
12 km/hr
Rs. 16500 is split into two fixed deposits for 2 years at 10% and 12% Simple Interest. If the total interest received from the deposits is Rs. 3620, how much was invested in the 12% scheme?
Rs.8500
Rs.10500
Rs. 9500
Rs.10000
Rs.8000
If the height of the triangle is 24 cm, and the area of the triangle is 168 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is 84 cm. If it were given that the base of a triangle is equal to the breadth of a rectangle. Find length of rectangle.
30 cm
32 cm
28 cm
40 cm
25 cm
The ratio of water to milk in 250 liters of mixture A is 4:1. Mixture B has 25 liters of water and the ratio of water to milk in mixture B is 5:7. If 40% of mixture A and 80% of mixture B is Mixed and new mixture C is made then find the ratio of milk to water in Mixture C.
15:17
25:12
23:16
12:25
None of the above
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x 2 + 18x + 77 = 0
II. 4y2 + 31y + 21 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x2 – 33x + 136 = 0
II. 2y2 – 37y + 171 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 5x2 – 38x + 65 = 0
II. 5y2 – 19y - 30 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 12x2 + 11x + 2 = 0
II. y2 + 20y + 99 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x2 – 19x + 24 = 0
II. y2 – 25y + 144 = 0
x > y
x < y
x ≥ y
x ≤ y
x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Question:
What is the average number of 'Q' type of 'quantities' displaced by warehouses 'B', 'C', and 'D'?
340
350
360
370
380
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Question:
If each 'P' type of displaced 'quantity' costs Rs. 275 to a warehouse then find the total cost beared by all four warehouses?
Rs. 371250
Rs. 372250
Rs. 373250
Rs. 374250
Rs. 375250
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Question:
If the number of 'Q' type of displaced 'quantities' for warehouse 'E' is 62.5% more than the number of 'Q' type of quantities displaced by warehouse 'A' and the number of 'P' type of displaced 'quantities' for warehouse 'E' is 250 more than the number of 'Q' type of quantities displaced by the same warehouse then find the total number of quantities displaced by warehouse 'E'?
1150
1250
1350
1450
1550
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Question:
The total number of 'P' type of quantities displaced by warehouses 'A', 'C', and 'D' are approximately what percentage of the total number of quantities displaced by all four warehouses?
36%
37%
38%
39%
40%
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Question:
Out of the total number of quantities displaced by all four warehouses 42.85% are returned back due to some defects then find the total number quantities that are accepted and not returned back for all four warehouses?
1200
1400
1600
1800
2000
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Question:
The ratio of present ages of A and B is 7 : 8. After 6 years from now, the ratio of their ages will be 8 : 9. If C's present age is 10 years more than the present age of A, then the present age (in years) of C is:
59
56
45
52
55
Arvind gives 50% of his money to his son, 30% to his wife, and 62.5% of the remaining money is donated to a trust. He is left with 15,000 Rs. now. How much money did he have in the beginning?
2,05,000 Rs.
2,25,000 Rs.
2,10,000 Rs.
2,00,000 Rs.
1,90,000 Rs.
Akshay invested Rs. 24,000 in a business. After few months Bikash joined with a capital of Rs. 18,000. After a year, profit is divided into ratio 16 : 7. After how many months, did Bikash join the business?
3 months
4 months
5 months
6 months
7 months
Two pipes can fill a tank in 12 hours and 15 hours respectively, while the third pipes can empty it in 18 hours. If first two pipes fill the tank for 5 hours then, time taken to empty the tank by third pipe ?
13.5 hours
12.5 hours
11.5 hours
15.5 hours
14.5 hours
A train covers 400 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 10 km/h more, it would have taken 2 hours less for the same journey. What is the usual time taken (in hours) by it to complete the journey?
12
15
8
10
14
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres (Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is 25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music' genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz' but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35 respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Question:
What is the number of people who prefer to listen all three types of 'music' genres?
40
44
48
52
60
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres (Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is 25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music' genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz' but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35 respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Question:
Find the total number of people who prefer to listen only 'Folk' and only 'Rock'?
600
625
675
700
725
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres (Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is 25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music' genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz' but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35 respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Question:
The number of people who prefer to listen exactly one type of 'music' genre is how much more/ than the number of people who prefer to listen exactly two types of 'music' genres?
720
730
740
750
760
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres (Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is 25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music' genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz' but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35 respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Question:
Find the total number of people who prefer to listen 'Rock'?
520
530
540
550
560
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres (Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is 25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music' genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz' but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35 respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Question:
What is the ratio between the number of people who prefer to listen 'Folk' and to 'Jazz'?
3 : 2
5 : 4
7 : 6
9 : 8
11 : 10
Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961, 1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an oddnumbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Question:
Who was born in the year 1993?
A
E
B
D
None of these
Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961, 1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an oddnumbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Question:
What is the sum of the ages of C and B?
81
79
80
77
83
Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961, 1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an oddnumbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Question:
How many persons are born between G and D?
None
One
Three
Two
Four
Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961, 1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an oddnumbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Question:
Four of the five are alike in a certain way thus form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
F
G
B
E
C
Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961, 1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an oddnumbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Question:
B was born in which year?
1999
2013
1993
1988
1968
DIRECTIONS: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements : F = S > G < V, Q > P > X, F ≥ X, V < M
Conclusions:
I. M > G
II. S < Q
Only conclusion I follows
Only conclusion Ii follows
Either conclusion I or II follows
Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Both conclusion I and II follows
DIRECTIONS: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements : P > Q < R, R = S > T, T < U > V
Conclusions :
I. S > P
II. U > R
Only conclusion I follows
Only conclusion II follows
Both Conclusion I and II follow
Neither I nor II follow
Either I or II follow
DIRECTIONS: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements : T > N < V = L ≤ W < K, V = H > I > F
Conclusions :
I. V > F
II. T > H
Only conclusion I follows
Only conclusion II follows
Either conclusion I or II follow
Neither conclusion I nor II follow
Both Conclusion I and II follow
Direction: Study the given information and answer the following questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy book before G but not at the first.
Question:
Who is the second last person to buy a book?
A
M
E
G
P
Direction: Study the given information and answer the following questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy book before G but not at the first.
Question:
How many persons buys book between B and E?
Three
Four
Five
Six
Seven
Direction: Study the given information and answer the following questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy book before G but not at the first.
Question:
Who is the first person to buy the book?
K
A
M
E
F
Direction: Study the given information and answer the following questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy book before G but not at the first.
Question:
If F and K interchange their position, then how many persons buy books between F and E?
three
Five
Four
Six
Seven
Direction: Study the given information and answer the following questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy book before G but not at the first.
Question:
Find the odd one out.
FA
BG
AE
GM
AK
If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 6953265 , then what will be the sum of numbers not repeated in the new number formed?
9
14
13
7
8
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
Question:
What is the code for 'now'?
si
vi
th
no
fo
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
Question:
What is the code for 'victory'?
vi
th
fo
si
Either vi or si
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
Question:
What is the code for 'finale'?
ap
fi
th
fo
no
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
Question:
If the code for 'all good for victory' is coded as 'vi fo go al', how will 'the empty sign' be coded as?
th em vi
si em fo
si em th
fi th fo
None of the above
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
Question:
What is the code for 'apartment'?
ap
th
em
no
fo
If it is possible to make only one meaningful 4 letter English word with the 1st, 3rd, 6th, and 8th letter of the word PROPELLER, which of the following will be the third letter from the left of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made give ‘Y’ as the answer.
X
O
L
Y
E
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
ZXV
DBZ
GIK
FDB
KIG
Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO, CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e. CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively. One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Question:
How many total number of pens have by the persons who are on the post of CEO and CFO?
64
66
68
70
72
Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO, CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e. CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively. One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Question:
Find the correct Sequence from the following?
Manager-A-44
CEO-Q-35
CFO-R-45
Clerk-Z-49
Peon-W-38
Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO, CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e. CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively. One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Question:
How many post are between the person R and Q?
One
Two
Three
Four
None
Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO, CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e. CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively. One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Question:
Who is on the post of CFO?
Q
Z
A
W
R
Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO, CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e. CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively. One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Question:
How many pens does Clerk have?
40
42
44
46
48
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word "REVOLUTION" which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
Five
Three
None
Four
More than five
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the family.
N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I. N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.
Question:
How is L related to the maternal uncle of N?
Son
Daughter
Nephew
Niece
Cannot be determined
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the family.
N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I. N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.
Question:
If G does not have a brother, how is I related to the sister-in-law of H?
Maternal aunt
Paternal uncle
Maternal uncle
Paternal aunt
Cannot be determined
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the family.
N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I. N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.
Question:
If L is the daughter of G, how many male members are there in the family?
Six
Five
Seven
Cannot be determined
None of these
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than one person sits between B and A.
Question:
Who among the following faces the person who is from Tokyo?
A
P
R
Q
B
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than one person sits between B and A.
Question:
Find the odd man out:
PD
SB
RB
QC
RD
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than one person sits between B and A.
Question:
How many persons sit between the person from Damascus and Madrid?
3
2
1
None
Cannot be determined
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than one person sits between B and A.
Question:
Who is sitting opposite to the person from New York?
A
S
B
C
D
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than one person sits between B and A.
Question:
Which of the following is false?
A is from Tokyo.
Q is from Beijing
P is from delhi
D is from Dhaka
B is from Madrid