SBI PO Mains (20 Jul, 2019)-3114

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SBI PO Mains (20 Jul, 2019) (Test Code: 3114)

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges itself following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement. 

Input: 575345 182561 251567 889481 913456 342366

Step I: 545375 161582 267551 881489 956413 366342

Step II: 161582 267551 366342 545375 881849 956413

Step III: 115268 155726 332466 355574 194888 135946

Step IV: 91526 75572 93246 75557 99488 73594

Step V: 73594 75557 75572 91526 93246 99488

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Question:

How many even numbers are there in Step 3?

  1. One 

  2. Two 

  3. Three 

  4. Six 

  5. None

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges itself following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement. 

Input: 575345 182561 251567 889481 913456 342366

Step I: 545375 161582 267551 881489 956413 366342

Step II: 161582 267551 366342 545375 881849 956413

Step III: 115268 155726 332466 355574 194888 135946

Step IV: 91526 75572 93246 75557 99488 73594

Step V: 73594 75557 75572 91526 93246 99488

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Question:

What will be the difference between the first and the fourth numbers from the left in step 4?

  1. 1782

  2. 1382

  3. 1582 

  4. 1982

  5. 1482

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges itself following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement. 

Input: 575345 182561 251567 889481 913456 342366

Step I: 545375 161582 267551 881489 956413 366342

Step II: 161582 267551 366342 545375 881849 956413

Step III: 115268 155726 332466 355574 194888 135946

Step IV: 91526 75572 93246 75557 99488 73594

Step V: 73594 75557 75572 91526 93246 99488

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Question:

Which is the 4th number from the left in step 2?

  1. 321433

  2. 145131 

  3. 156423 

  4. 351412 

  5. 72161

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges itself following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement. 

Input: 575345 182561 251567 889481 913456 342366

Step I: 545375 161582 267551 881489 956413 366342

Step II: 161582 267551 366342 545375 881849 956413

Step III: 115268 155726 332466 355574 194888 135946

Step IV: 91526 75572 93246 75557 99488 73594

Step V: 73594 75557 75572 91526 93246 99488

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Question:

How many numbers have repeated digits in Step IV?

  1. One 

  2. Two 

  3. Three 

  4. Four 

  5. Five

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges itself following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement. 

Input: 575345 182561 251567 889481 913456 342366

Step I: 545375 161582 267551 881489 956413 366342

Step II: 161582 267551 366342 545375 881849 956413

Step III: 115268 155726 332466 355574 194888 135946

Step IV: 91526 75572 93246 75557 99488 73594

Step V: 73594 75557 75572 91526 93246 99488

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Question:

What will be the sum of the digits of the extreme left number in Step 1? 

  1. 16

  2. 14

  3. 15

  4. 17

  5. 18

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question based on it. 

If A # B: B is 5 m to the right of A.

If A $ B: B is 5 m to the south of A.

If A @ B: B is 5 m to the left of A.

If A % B: B is 5 m to the north of A.

Assume that the first person is facing towards north. 

Question:

If J @ K % M % L # W, How far is W with respect to J?

  1. 5 m 

  2. 20 m 

  3. 10 m 

  4. 15 m 

  5. 25 m

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question based on it. 

If A # B: B is 5 m to the right of A.

If A $ B: B is 5 m to the south of A.

If A @ B: B is 5 m to the left of A.

If A % B: B is 5 m to the north of A.

Assume that the first person is facing towards north. 

Question:

If M % N @ O $ P, in which direction is P with respect to M? 

  1. West 

  2. South 

  3. East 

  4. South-west 

  5. North 

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question based on it. 

If A # B: B is 5 m to the right of A.

If A $ B: B is 5 m to the south of A.

If A @ B: B is 5 m to the left of A.

If A % B: B is 5 m to the north of A.

Assume that the first person is facing towards north. 

Question:

If U % V # W # R % S, then which of the following is definitely true? 

  1. R # V 

  2. U @ V 

  3. V $ U 

  4. W $ S

  5. None of these

In a certain code language, 

“beach material said entire” is coded as “7V& 9O@ 5W@ 3S@”,

“schools was proper system” is coded as “1H& 7N& 7I@ 5H@”,

“they could accept request” is coded as “5B& 3W@ 7G@ 5G&”,

“pink house looks nice” is coded as “5V@ 3V& 3H@ 5P&”.

Question:

What is the code for “independent” in this code language?

  1. 9W@

  2. 10W@ 

  3. 12G@ 

  4. 9G@ 

  5. 9G&

In a certain code language, 

“beach material said entire” is coded as “7V& 9O@ 5W@ 3S@”,

“schools was proper system” is coded as “1H& 7N& 7I@ 5H@”,

“they could accept request” is coded as “5B& 3W@ 7G@ 5G&”,

“pink house looks nice” is coded as “5V@ 3V& 3H@ 5P&”.

Question:

“7I@” may be the code for which of the following word? 

  1. Films 

  2. Forest

  3. Flower 

  4. Simple 

  5. Prepare

In a certain code language, 

“beach material said entire” is coded as “7V& 9O@ 5W@ 3S@”,

“schools was proper system” is coded as “1H& 7N& 7I@ 5H@”,

“they could accept request” is coded as “5B& 3W@ 7G@ 5G&”,

“pink house looks nice” is coded as “5V@ 3V& 3H@ 5P&”.

Question:

What is the code for “she is innocent girl”?

  1. 1U&, 9G&, 3H&, 5O@

  2. 1V&, 5O@, 3H&, 9G& 

  3. 1V&, 5O&, 9G&, 3H&

  4. 1U@, 9G@, 3H&, 5O@

  5. 1V@, 5O&, 9G&, 3H& 

In a certain code language, 

“beach material said entire” is coded as “7V& 9O@ 5W@ 3S@”,

“schools was proper system” is coded as “1H& 7N& 7I@ 5H@”,

“they could accept request” is coded as “5B& 3W@ 7G@ 5G&”,

“pink house looks nice” is coded as “5V@ 3V& 3H@ 5P&”.

Question:

What will be the code for “job is important for all”?

  1. 1O&, 1Y&, 7G&, 3I&, 1I& 

  2. 1O&, 3Y&, 7G&, 3H&, 2I& 

  3. 2O&, 1Y&, 9G&, 3H&, 1I& 

  4. 1O&, 1Y&, 7G&, 3H&, 1I&

  5. 1O@, 1Y&, 7G&, 3H@, 1I& 

In a certain code language, 

“beach material said entire” is coded as “7V& 9O@ 5W@ 3S@”,

“schools was proper system” is coded as “1H& 7N& 7I@ 5H@”,

“they could accept request” is coded as “5B& 3W@ 7G@ 5G&”,

“pink house looks nice” is coded as “5V@ 3V& 3H@ 5P&”.

Question:

What will be the code for “fluctuations” in this code language?

  1. 11H& 

  2. 13I@ 

  3. 13I&

  4. 13H& 

  5. 11H@

Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. 

During an ongoing conversation between the creative artist and the Manager of an interior decoration firm, The creative artist said " The content of the Company XYZ is not good hence no more tender should be given to the company.

The Manager replied " there is a rivalry between company XYZ and ABC due to which there are such rumours against company XYZ in the market.

What could be the viewpoint of the manager while replying to the Creative artist?

  1. The manager thinks that the creative artist is a fresher and doesn't know about the Tender process 

  2. The manager has previously worked with Company XYZ and thus knows about the quality of their content. 

  3. The manager has reasons to believe that company ABC is spreading rumours about company XYZ.

  4. The content of company XYZ is better than company ABC

  5. The manager does not trust the Creative artist

Homeowners aged 40 to 50 are more likely to purchase ice cream and are more likely to purchase it in larger amounts than members of any other demographic group. The popular belief that teenagers eat more ice-cream than adults must, therefore, be false.

The argument is flawed because the author -

  1. fails to distinguish between purchasing and consuming. 

  2. does not supply information about homeowners in age groups other than 40 to 50. 

  3. depends on popular belief rather than on documented research findings. 

  4. does not specify the precise amount of ice cream purchased by any demographic group. 

  5. discusses ice cream rather than more nutritious and healthful foods. 

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Question: Most people like to wake up every morning to a hot cup of tea and a newspaper. Newspaper gives people a fair idea of the happenings in the world and prepares them for their daily discussion about it with friends, fellow commuters and colleagues. Readership of newspapers has taken a beating nowadays. 

Which of the following ways would best help increase it in today’s day and age?

  1. Increase the number of advertisements in the paper. 

  2. Give out free copies initially and then get people to subscribe to the paper. 

  3. Add a number of leisure related like cartoons, puzzles and jokes.

  4. Improve news coverage and make it succinct, crisp, factual and riveting. 

  5. Avoid silly news articles. 

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

In the year of 1945, two atomic bombs were dropped on Japan cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki which killed hundreds of thousands of people and their effects are still being felt today. It burnt around 70 percent of all buildings and caused an estimated 140,000 deaths by the end of 1945. It increased cancer rates and chronic disease among survivors. Some people who entered the cities after the bombing to provide assistance also died from the radiation.

Given below are some options, select the one which is definitely not a long term effect to humans caused by this incident.

  1. Leukaemia among survivors increased after the bombing. 

  2. Survivors began suffering from thyroid, breast, lung and other cancers at higher rates. 

  3. 3. Due to this the ground temperature reached up to 4000 degree Celsius. 

  4. Children exposed to radiation in their mother's womb are likely to have intellectual disabilities and impaired growth. 

  5. Pregnant women exposed to such radiations would experience miscarriage or even death of their infants.

Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. 

Statements: A research shows that 80% of the youth today prefer socializing on the internet over personal interaction. The prominent reason behind this precedence was the lack of emotional involvement required when it came to socializing via internet.

Which of the following assertions best infer the above statements? 

  1. The youth today only interacts through online networking media.

  2. Socializing on the internet does not require emotional involvement. 

  3. It is more comfortable for the youth today to interact with less emotional attachment. 

  4. The youth today prefer online socializing because it does not involve personal interaction. 

  5. Today’s youth lack the ability to socialize face-to-face, therefore prefer interacting online. 

Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: In spite of the bad quality of food, employees have not complained.

Assumptions:

I. Generally employees complain.

II. Complaints improve quality. 

  1. Only assumption I is implicit. 

  2. Only assumption II is implicit. 

  3. Either assumption I or II is implicit. 

  4. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit. 

  5. Both the assumptions I and II are implicit. 

In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: The odd-even traffic system to fight increased air pollution has received mixed response from people.

Assumptions:

I. Air pollution has decreased due to odd-even system.

II. Every citizen has welcomed the odd-even system.

  1. Only assumption I is implicit. 

  2. Only assumption II is implicit. 

  3. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit. 

  4. Both assumptions I and II are implicit 

  5. Either I or II is implicit

In the following question, a statement has been given which is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II, III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up, or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information provided. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the given /suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Select your answer from amongst the given alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4), (5). 

Statement: Every year thousands of able students, both in rural as well as in urban areas cannot get admission in colleges despite passing the last certificate examination of their schools.

Courses of Action:

I. More colleges should be established in rural as well as in urban areas.

II. The number of schools in rural as well as in urban areas should be decreased.

III. A good number of schools should conduct vocational courses. So that the students could start preparing to get employed after completing the school education. 

  1. Only I follows 

  2. Only II and III follow 

  3. All follow 

  4. Only I and III follow 

  5. None of the above

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

There are eight people living in 3 states - Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi. The people having blood relation reside in the same state. The states are West Bengal, Orissa, Assam. At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same states. These eight people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. 

people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family. Nikeeta likes Hindi. The sister of Rashi likes Chinese. The sibling of Nikeeta likes English. Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa. Rashi does not like Spanish and Bengali. The Arabic language is liked by a female. Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French. The family members of Vishnu neither like Marathi nor Arabic. Zahida likes neither Spanish nor Marathi. Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam. Zahida is a friend of Hiteshri, whose sister does not like Marathi. The family members of Hiteshri does not like Bengali. Zahida's father like Spanish.

Question:

Who is the sister of Hiteshri?

  1. Rashi

  2. Zahida 

  3. Satya 

  4. Nikeeta 

  5. Mridul 

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

There are eight people living in 3 states - Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi. The people having blood relation reside in the same state. The states are West Bengal, Orissa, Assam. At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same states. These eight people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. 

people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family. Nikeeta likes Hindi. The sister of Rashi likes Chinese. The sibling of Nikeeta likes English. Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa. Rashi does not like Spanish and Bengali. The Arabic language is liked by a female. Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French. The family members of Vishnu neither like Marathi nor Arabic. Zahida likes neither Spanish nor Marathi. Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam. Zahida is a friend of Hiteshri, whose sister does not like Marathi. The family members of Hiteshri does not like Bengali. Zahida's father like Spanish.

Question:

Who likes Bengali?

  1. Rashi 

  2. Zahida 

  3. Satya

  4. Nikeeta 

  5. Mridul

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

There are eight people living in 3 states - Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi. The people having blood relation reside in the same state. The states are West Bengal, Orissa, Assam. At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same states. These eight people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. 

people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family. Nikeeta likes Hindi. The sister of Rashi likes Chinese. The sibling of Nikeeta likes English. Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa. Rashi does not like Spanish and Bengali. The Arabic language is liked by a female. Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French. The family members of Vishnu neither like Marathi nor Arabic. Zahida likes neither Spanish nor Marathi. Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam. Zahida is a friend of Hiteshri, whose sister does not like Marathi. The family members of Hiteshri does not like Bengali. Zahida's father like Spanish.

Question:

In which state does Ram reside?

  1. West bengal 

  2. Assam 

  3. Orissa 

  4. Either Assam or West Bengal 

  5. Cannot be determined

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

There are eight people living in 3 states - Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi. The people having blood relation reside in the same state. The states are West Bengal, Orissa, Assam. At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same states. These eight people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. 

people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family. Nikeeta likes Hindi. The sister of Rashi likes Chinese. The sibling of Nikeeta likes English. Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa. Rashi does not like Spanish and Bengali. The Arabic language is liked by a female. Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French. The family members of Vishnu neither like Marathi nor Arabic. Zahida likes neither Spanish nor Marathi. Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam. Zahida is a friend of Hiteshri, whose sister does not like Marathi. The family members of Hiteshri does not like Bengali. Zahida's father like Spanish.

Question:

Who is the brother of Nikeeta?

  1. Rashi 

  2. Zahida 

  3. Satya 

  4. Nikeeta 

  5. Mridul

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

There are eight people living in 3 states - Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi. The people having blood relation reside in the same state. The states are West Bengal, Orissa, Assam. At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same states. These eight people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. 

people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family. Nikeeta likes Hindi. The sister of Rashi likes Chinese. The sibling of Nikeeta likes English. Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa. Rashi does not like Spanish and Bengali. The Arabic language is liked by a female. Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French. The family members of Vishnu neither like Marathi nor Arabic. Zahida likes neither Spanish nor Marathi. Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam. Zahida is a friend of Hiteshri, whose sister does not like Marathi. The family members of Hiteshri does not like Bengali. Zahida's father like Spanish.

Question:

Which language does Rashi like? 

  1. Arabic

  2. Hindi 

  3. English 

  4. Bengali

  5. Spanish

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 

There are 2 concentric square gates having entries on four sides on which 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing. The persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate. Not more than 4 persons can stand on a gate. D is facing the same side as C. C is not facing A. C is one of the neighbours of D, who is not a neighbour of A. B and G are not facing each-other while C and F are looking at the same side. G is facing A, who is in the outer gate. H, who is not facing B is 2nd left of E, who is facing outside. E is not facing C. The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Question:

Who are the neighbours of E?

  1. G and B 

  2. H and B

  3. D and H 

  4. F and A

  5. None of these

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 

There are 2 concentric square gates having entries on four sides on which 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing. The persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate. Not more than 4 persons can stand on a gate. D is facing the same side as C. C is not facing A. C is one of the neighbours of D, who is not a neighbour of A. B and G are not facing each-other while C and F are looking at the same side. G is facing A, who is in the outer gate. H, who is not facing B is 2nd left of E, who is facing outside. E is not facing C. The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Question:

Who is facing G?

  1. A

  2. E

  3. C

  4. F

  5. D

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 

There are 2 concentric square gates having entries on four sides on which 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing. The persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate. Not more than 4 persons can stand on a gate. D is facing the same side as C. C is not facing A. C is one of the neighbours of D, who is not a neighbour of A. B and G are not facing each-other while C and F are looking at the same side. G is facing A, who is in the outer gate. H, who is not facing B is 2nd left of E, who is facing outside. E is not facing C. The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Question:

In the given options, 4 of them are similar in a way, thus forming groups. Find Which one is odd from the group?

  1. E and H

  2. E and F 

  3. H and C 

  4. G and A

  5. B and D

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 

There are 2 concentric square gates having entries on four sides on which 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing. The persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate. Not more than 4 persons can stand on a gate. D is facing the same side as C. C is not facing A. C is one of the neighbours of D, who is not a neighbour of A. B and G are not facing each-other while C and F are looking at the same side. G is facing A, who is in the outer gate. H, who is not facing B is 2nd left of E, who is facing outside. E is not facing C. The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Question:

The 4 persons standing on the outer gate are?

  1. ACDF 

  2. ACFE 

  3. ACFH 

  4. BGEH 

  5. GAEB

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 

There are 2 concentric square gates having entries on four sides on which 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing. The persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate. Not more than 4 persons can stand on a gate. D is facing the same side as C. C is not facing A. C is one of the neighbours of D, who is not a neighbour of A. B and G are not facing each-other while C and F are looking at the same side. G is facing A, who is in the outer gate. H, who is not facing B is 2nd left of E, who is facing outside. E is not facing C. The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Question:

The 4 persons standing on the inner gate are?

  1. BHGE

  2. GEFD 

  3. FAHB 

  4. FDGA

  5. GCHB

P@Q means the person is turning to his right side from point P and reaching point Q

P # Q means the person is turning to his left side from point P and reaching point Q

A person standing at A is looking in the North direction. 

A@5B, B@6C, C#8D 

What is the direction of starting point with respect to the end point? 

  1. North - West 

  2. South – West 

  3. South

  4. North 

  5. None of These

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

7 people A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all are related to V in some way, and are facing north. J sits third from the extreme end. V’s father sits second to the right of J. Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister. As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother. Only one person sits between N and V’s mother. N is the son of C. A sits third to the right of C. C is the father of R. F sits to the immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second to the left of V. 

Question:

Who is sitting adjacent to the father of V? 

  1. V

  2. C

  3. R

  4. F

  5. A

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

7 people A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all are related to V in some way, and are facing north. J sits third from the extreme end. V’s father sits second to the right of J. Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister. As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother. Only one person sits between N and V’s mother. N is the son of C. A sits third to the right of C. C is the father of R. F sits to the immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second to the left of V. 

Question:

Who is the wife of V?

  1. A

  2. C

  3. R

  4. F

  5. V

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

7 people A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all are related to V in some way, and are facing north. J sits third from the extreme end. V’s father sits second to the right of J. Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister. As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother. Only one person sits between N and V’s mother. N is the son of C. A sits third to the right of C. C is the father of R. F sits to the immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second to the left of V. 

Question:

Who is sitting exactly between C and V’s mother?

  1. A

  2. F

  3. J

  4. V

  5. N

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

7 people A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all are related to V in some way, and are facing north. J sits third from the extreme end. V’s father sits second to the right of J. Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister. As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother. Only one person sits between N and V’s mother. N is the son of C. A sits third to the right of C. C is the father of R. F sits to the immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second to the left of V. 

Question:

Who is sitting at the extreme right?

  1. V’s father

  2. V’s wife 

  3. V’s sister

  4. C

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

7 people A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all are related to V in some way, and are facing north. J sits third from the extreme end. V’s father sits second to the right of J. Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister. As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother. Only one person sits between N and V’s mother. N is the son of C. A sits third to the right of C. C is the father of R. F sits to the immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second to the left of V. 

Question:

Who is sitting second to the left of A?

  1. R

  2. F

  3. C

  4. J

  5. N

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting around a circular table facing the center such that the seats are in the form of a clock ranging from 1 to 12 O’Clock. Seat 1 is 1 O clock, seat 2 is 2’ O’Clock and so on. R is to the immediate left of U, who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat. There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat. T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q. Q is to the right of R. There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R. V is sitting to the immediate right of P. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P. 

Question:

Who is sitting to the immediate right of R? 

  1. T

  2. P

  3. Q

  4. R

  5. U

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting around a circular table facing the center such that the seats are in the form of a clock ranging from 1 to 12 O’Clock. Seat 1 is 1 O clock, seat 2 is 2’ O’Clock and so on. R is to the immediate left of U, who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat. There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat. T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q. Q is to the right of R. There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R. V is sitting to the immediate right of P. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P. 

Question:

How much is the hour-difference between T and U? 

  1. 4 hours 

  2. 5 hours 

  3. 6 hours 

  4. 8 hours 

  5. 2 hours

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting around a circular table facing the center such that the seats are in the form of a clock ranging from 1 to 12 O’Clock. Seat 1 is 1 O clock, seat 2 is 2’ O’Clock and so on. R is to the immediate left of U, who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat. There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat. T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q. Q is to the right of R. There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R. V is sitting to the immediate right of P. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P. 

Question:

What is the seat number of S? 

  1. 1

  2. 2

  3. 6

  4. 7

  5. 8

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below. There are three stack of boxes viz Stack 1, Stack 2 and Stack 3 height of each stack is 300 cm and number of boxes in each stack is same. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2. G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept. Height of G is 36 cm. 

O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F’s height is an even number and more than G. F is not immediately above C. Height of F is less than 40 cm. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. As many boxes below F as below D. Only three boxes are kept between B and E. E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top. More than one box is kept between X and Z. Height of Z is 63 cm. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W. U is one of the boxes. Height of U is same as height of W. N is not placed at the top

Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. N height 16 more than D’s height. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A. 

Question:

What is the sum of height of the box which is immediate above M and the box which is immediate below W? 

  1. 89 cm

  2. 126 cm 

  3. 99 cm

  4. 116 cm 

  5. 147 cm

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below. There are three stack of boxes viz Stack 1, Stack 2 and Stack 3 height of each stack is 300 cm and number of boxes in each stack is same. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2. G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept. Height of G is 36 cm. 

O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F’s height is an even number and more than G. F is not immediately above C. Height of F is less than 40 cm. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. As many boxes below F as below D. Only three boxes are kept between B and E. E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top. More than one box is kept between X and Z. Height of Z is 63 cm. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W. U is one of the boxes. Height of U is same as height of W. N is not placed at the top

Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. N height 16 more than D’s height. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A. 

Question:

hich among the following box is kept immediately below box U? 

  1. N

  2. Z

  3. X

  4. M

  5. G

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below. There are three stack of boxes viz Stack 1, Stack 2 and Stack 3 height of each stack is 300 cm and number of boxes in each stack is same. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2. G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept. Height of G is 36 cm. 

O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F’s height is an even number and more than G. F is not immediately above C. Height of F is less than 40 cm. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. As many boxes below F as below D. Only three boxes are kept between B and E. E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top. More than one box is kept between X and Z. Height of Z is 63 cm. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W. U is one of the boxes. Height of U is same as height of W. N is not placed at the top

Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. N height 16 more than D’s height. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A. 

Question:

Which of the following box is kept at the top of the stacks?

  1. J

  2. X

  3. U

  4. Both 1) and 2) 

  5. Both 1) and 3)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below. There are three stack of boxes viz Stack 1, Stack 2 and Stack 3 height of each stack is 300 cm and number of boxes in each stack is same. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2. G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept. Height of G is 36 cm. 

O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F’s height is an even number and more than G. F is not immediately above C. Height of F is less than 40 cm. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. As many boxes below F as below D. Only three boxes are kept between B and E. E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top. More than one box is kept between X and Z. Height of Z is 63 cm. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W. U is one of the boxes. Height of U is same as height of W. N is not placed at the top

Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. N height 16 more than D’s height. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A. 

Question:

What is the sum of height of all the boxes which are placed in the middle of each stack? 

  1. 148 cm 

  2. 159 cm

  3. 227 cm

  4. 190 cm

  5. 170 cm

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below. There are three stack of boxes viz Stack 1, Stack 2 and Stack 3 height of each stack is 300 cm and number of boxes in each stack is same. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2. G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept. Height of G is 36 cm. 

O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F’s height is an even number and more than G. F is not immediately above C. Height of F is less than 40 cm. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. As many boxes below F as below D. Only three boxes are kept between B and E. E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top. More than one box is kept between X and Z. Height of Z is 63 cm. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W. U is one of the boxes. Height of U is same as height of W. N is not placed at the top

Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. N height 16 more than D’s height. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A. 

Question:

Which of the following is not true regarding arrangement?

  1. J – 92 cm 

  2. Z - 63 cm 

  3. W - 85 cm 

  4. E – 54 cm 

  5. O – 62 cm

Direction: The area of the cities increased in compound manner in different years. 

Question:

Area of City A increased by 25% each year since 2001 and the area was 100 sq. km. in 2001, and the GER in 2001 was 3 : 1. If the GER in 2002 was 0.67 which decreased by 25% in 2003, then find the number of Males in City A in 2003. 

  1. 25600

  2. 31250

  3. 15625 

  4. 28400 

  5. 32360 

Direction: The area of the cities increased in compound manner in different years. 

Question:

Area of City B increased by 20% each year, and area in 2003 was 172.8 sq. km. Find the ratio of Males in City B in 2002 to the Females in City B in 2001, if the GER of City B in 2002 was 1.5 and that in 2001 was inverse of that in 2002.

  1. 1 : 2

  2. 2 : 1 

  3. 3 : 1 

  4. 1 : 3 

  5. None of these

Direction: The area of the cities increased in compound manner in different years. 

Question:

Total Population of City C in 2001 was 8250 and area of City C expanded by 10% each year. Then was the ratio of GER of City C in 2002 to GER of City C in 2003 if the Male Population in 2002 was 4356 and that in 2003 was 7986. 

  1. 7 : 6 

  2. 6 : 7 

  3. 7 : 9 

  4. 9 : 7 

  5. 5 : 3

Direction: The area of the cities increased in compound manner in different years. 

Question:

GER of City D in 2001 was 0.4 and the number of Female was 2514. Then find the rate at which the area of City D expanded. 

  1. 8% 

  2. 12%

  3. 16% 

  4. Cannot be determined

  5. 24% 

Direction: The area of the cities increased in compound manner in different years. 

Question:

Find the ratio of sum of average population density of City A and City B to the sum of Average Population density of City C and City D.

  1. 217 : 243 

  2. 195 : 187 

  3. 250 : 339

  4. 243 : 217 

  5. None of these

Direction: There are three boxes P, Q and R which consists of Red, Blue and Green colour balls. Total number of blue balls in all three boxes together is 9 and total number of balls in all the boxes together is 32. 

In Box P: The probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 and the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls. 

In Box Q: Total number of balls is 10 and the ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3. Also the sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls. 

In Box R: Total number of balls is 10 and the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue.

Question:

Find the ratio of sum of Red balls in boxes P & R and the sum of Green balls in Boxes Q and R. 

  1. 9 : 8 

  2. 7 : 9

  3. 8 : 5

  4. 3 : 2

  5. 2 : 3 

Direction: There are three boxes P, Q and R which consists of Red, Blue and Green colour balls. Total number of blue balls in all three boxes together is 9 and total number of balls in all the boxes together is 32. 

In Box P: The probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 and the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls. 

In Box Q: Total number of balls is 10 and the ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3. Also the sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls. 

In Box R: Total number of balls is 10 and the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue.

Question:

What is the probability of getting either a blue or a green ball from box R. 

  1. 3/5 

  2. 2/5 

  3. 4/5 

  4. 7/10

  5. 1/2

Direction: There are three boxes P, Q and R which consists of Red, Blue and Green colour balls. Total number of blue balls in all three boxes together is 9 and total number of balls in all the boxes together is 32. 

In Box P: The probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 and the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls. 

In Box Q: Total number of balls is 10 and the ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3. Also the sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls. 

In Box R: Total number of balls is 10 and the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue.

Question:

One ball each is drawn from each box. Find the probability that all are of red colour.

  1. 1/40

  2. 1/24 

  3. 3/50

  4. 4/15 

  5. 1/30

Direction: There are three boxes P, Q and R which consists of Red, Blue and Green colour balls. Total number of blue balls in all three boxes together is 9 and total number of balls in all the boxes together is 32. 

In Box P: The probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 and the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls. 

In Box Q: Total number of balls is 10 and the ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3. Also the sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls. 

In Box R: Total number of balls is 10 and the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue.

Question:

What is the difference of probability of drawing a green ball from box Q and the probability of drawing a blue ball from box R?

  1. 0.2

  2. 0.5

  3. 0.4

  4. 0.1 

  5. 0.3

Direction: There are three boxes P, Q and R which consists of Red, Blue and Green colour balls. Total number of blue balls in all three boxes together is 9 and total number of balls in all the boxes together is 32. 

In Box P: The probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 and the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls. 

In Box Q: Total number of balls is 10 and the ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3. Also the sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls. 

In Box R: Total number of balls is 10 and the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue.

Question:

If ‘x’ red balls are shifted from each of the boxes P and R to box Q then probability of drawing a red ball from box Q increases by 7/60. Find the value of x. 

  1. 2

  2. 4

  3. 3

  4. 5

  5. 1

6 Directions: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years and the per cent of defaulters amongst them each year. 

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years 

Number

Bank

Year      P       Q         R        S        T

2004 27361 26345 25467 28246 30164

2005 32081 27456 32461 29435 35128

2006 25361 28637 32652 29565 32144

2007 23654 29045 32561 28314 36152

2008 36125 30467 25495 23764 35463

2009 35465 31963 27649 24356 33214

2010 34135 31974 28283 26555 31264 

Approximate percentage of defaulters amongst them each year

PERCENTAGE 

Bank

Year  P Q  R   S  T

2004 12 9 15 13 19

2005 24 8 17 20 23

2006 22 13 16 21 25

2007 18 11 18 22 19

2008 12 10 13 23 18

2009 11 20 11 22 21

2010   9 21 12 21 23

Question:

Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were defaulters?

  1. 6490 

  2. 6210

  3. 5020 

  4. 6550 

  5. 5580

6 Directions: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years and the per cent of defaulters amongst them each year. 

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years 

Number

Bank

Year      P       Q         R        S        T

2004 27361 26345 25467 28246 30164

2005 32081 27456 32461 29435 35128

2006 25361 28637 32652 29565 32144

2007 23654 29045 32561 28314 36152

2008 36125 30467 25495 23764 35463

2009 35465 31963 27649 24356 33214

2010 34135 31974 28283 26555 31264 

Approximate percentage of defaulters amongst them each year

PERCENTAGE 

Bank

Year  P Q  R   S  T

2004 12 9 15 13 19

2005 24 8 17 20 23

2006 22 13 16 21 25

2007 18 11 18 22 19

2008 12 10 13 23 18

2009 11 20 11 22 21

2010   9 21 12 21 23

Question:

Approximately what was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005?

  1. 175 

  2. 125 

  3. 190

  4. 205

  5. 140

6 Directions: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years and the per cent of defaulters amongst them each year. 

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years 

Number

Bank

Year      P       Q         R        S        T

2004 27361 26345 25467 28246 30164

2005 32081 27456 32461 29435 35128

2006 25361 28637 32652 29565 32144

2007 23654 29045 32561 28314 36152

2008 36125 30467 25495 23764 35463

2009 35465 31963 27649 24356 33214

2010 34135 31974 28283 26555 31264 

Approximate percentage of defaulters amongst them each year

PERCENTAGE 

Bank

Year  P Q  R   S  T

2004 12 9 15 13 19

2005 24 8 17 20 23

2006 22 13 16 21 25

2007 18 11 18 22 19

2008 12 10 13 23 18

2009 11 20 11 22 21

2010   9 21 12 21 23

Question:

In which of the following years was the number of defaulters of Bank R the maximum among the given years? 

  1. 2005 

  2. 2006

  3. 2007 

  4. 2010 

  5. None of these

6 Directions: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years and the per cent of defaulters amongst them each year. 

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years 

Number

Bank

Year      P       Q         R        S        T

2004 27361 26345 25467 28246 30164

2005 32081 27456 32461 29435 35128

2006 25361 28637 32652 29565 32144

2007 23654 29045 32561 28314 36152

2008 36125 30467 25495 23764 35463

2009 35465 31963 27649 24356 33214

2010 34135 31974 28283 26555 31264 

Approximate percentage of defaulters amongst them each year

PERCENTAGE 

Bank

Year  P Q  R   S  T

2004 12 9 15 13 19

2005 24 8 17 20 23

2006 22 13 16 21 25

2007 18 11 18 22 19

2008 12 10 13 23 18

2009 11 20 11 22 21

2010   9 21 12 21 23

Question:

In which of the following years was the difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P from the previous year the highest?

  1. 2008 

  2. 2006

  3. 2007

  4. 2005 

  5. None of these

6 Directions: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years and the per cent of defaulters amongst them each year. 

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years 

Number

Bank

Year      P       Q         R        S        T

2004 27361 26345 25467 28246 30164

2005 32081 27456 32461 29435 35128

2006 25361 28637 32652 29565 32144

2007 23654 29045 32561 28314 36152

2008 36125 30467 25495 23764 35463

2009 35465 31963 27649 24356 33214

2010 34135 31974 28283 26555 31264 

Approximate percentage of defaulters amongst them each year

PERCENTAGE 

Bank

Year  P Q  R   S  T

2004 12 9 15 13 19

2005 24 8 17 20 23

2006 22 13 16 21 25

2007 18 11 18 22 19

2008 12 10 13 23 18

2009 11 20 11 22 21

2010   9 21 12 21 23

Question:

Approximately what was the total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together?

  1. 14110 

  2. 13620 

  3. 13250 

  4. 14670

  5. 15330

The ratio of the current ages of A and B is 3 : 4, while that of C and D is 3 : 5. If the difference between the ages of A and B is ___ years, then the ratio of the ages of A and B ___ years ago is equal to the current age ratio of C and D.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 4, 6 B. 6, 9 C. 12, 18 D. 16, 20

  1. A, B & C 

  2. A, B & D

  3. A, C & D

  4. B, C & D 

  5. All four

A dealer bought a product for Rs. 6000, marked its price 55% above the cost price and sold it at successive discounts of 20% + ___%. The shopkeeper who bought the product marked its price 50% above the cost price and sold it at a discount of 25%, thereby earning a profit of Rs. ___. 

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 10, 837

B. 15, 790.5

C. 20, 748

D. 25, 697.5

  1. A, B & C 

  2. A, B & D 

  3. A, C & D

  4. B, C & D

  5. All four

Three mixtures A, B and C are made by mixing milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2, 5 : 1 and 7 : 3 respectively. On mixing ___ litres of mixture A, 30 litres of mixture B and ___ litres of mixture C, a mixture of ratio 5 : 2 can be obtained.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 40, 30

B. 30, 10

C. 25, 50

D. 20, 40

  1. A & B 

  2. B & C

  3. C & D 

  4. A & C

  5. B & D

A man started his journey at 8:00 AM by covering 186 km by bus at a speed of 45 km/hr. After that, he travelled 256 km by train at a speed of 96 km/hr. and covered his remaining journey by taxi at a speed of 40 km/hr. Hence, he completed his journey of ___ km at ___ PM.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 490, 4:00

B. 500, 4:15

C. 530, 5:00

D. 554, 5:15 

  1. A, B & C 

  2. A, B & D 

  3. A, C & D 

  4. B, C & D 

  5. All four

The question below is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine whether the data given is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

In a live concert, the amount collected by selling the tickets was Rs. 75000. Find the cost of a ticket, if the cost of every ticket is the same.

Statement I: If the price of each ticket is increased by Rs. 50, the amount collected will be Rs. 6250 more.

Statement II: If the number of tickets is decreased by 25 (keeping the cost per ticket constant), the amount collected will be Rs. 15000 more.

Statement III: Ratio of number of tickets and the cost of a ticket is 5 : 24

  1. Any two statements are sufficient to answer the question. 2

  2. Any of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question. 

  3. Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question. 

  4. Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question. 

The question below is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine whether the data given is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

What is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the cuboid?

Statement I: The Total Surface Area of the cuboid is 550 cm2 and the ratio of the length, breadth and height of the cuboid is 2 : 3 : 1.

Statement II: The Total Surface Area of the cube is 384 cm2 .

Statement III: The breadth of the cuboid is 1.5 times of the length of the cuboid and 3 times of the height of the cuboid. The difference between the height and the length of the cuboid is 5 cm.

  1. Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question. 

  2. Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. Either statement I or III and statement II are sufficient to answer the question. 

  4. Either statement II or III and statement I are sufficient to answer the question.

  5. All the statements are required to answer the question. 

he question below is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine whether the data given is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

Find the total amount paid by the person to the bank.

Statement I: A person took the loan of Rs. 7000 from the bank at rate of 5% per annum simple interest.

Statement II: He wants to repay the loan in 5 years in some installments.

Statement III: At the end of 3 years, he paid Rs. 3000 and cleared the dues after 2 more years.

  1. All the statements are required to answer the question. 

  2. Any two statements are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. Either statement I or II and statement III are required to answer the question. 

  4. Statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question. 

  5. Statement II and III together are sufficient to answer the question. 

Direction: A, B, C, D and E are 5 stock investors. B purchased 2000 shares of reliance capital at 400. He seems market as a bearish and sold all his shares at 390 on next day. A, C and D bought 1000, 700 and 300 of these shares in quantity on the same day respectively. Now A and C sold 500 and 350 shares respectively on the same day and E purchased them at 395

Intraday ⇒ Buy and Sell shares on same day.

Delivery ⇒ Buy and Sell on different days. 

Brokerage charges for Intraday for each transaction = 1%

Brokerage charges for Delivery for each transaction = 0.5%

Question:

What is the approximate profit or loss percentage incurred by B?

  1. Loss of 2.25% 

  2. Profit of 2.25% 

  3. Loss of 3.45% 

  4. Profit of 3.45%

  5. Loss of 2.45%

Direction: A, B, C, D and E are 5 stock investors. B purchased 2000 shares of reliance capital at 400. He seems market as a bearish and sold all his shares at 390 on next day. A, C and D bought 1000, 700 and 300 of these shares in quantity on the same day respectively. Now A and C sold 500 and 350 shares respectively on the same day and E purchased them at 395

Intraday ⇒ Buy and Sell shares on same day.

Delivery ⇒ Buy and Sell on different days. 

Brokerage charges for Intraday for each transaction = 1%

Brokerage charges for Delivery for each transaction = 0.5%

Question:

If D sold half of its shares at same rate. so, at what rate he must sell the remaining share to get no profit no loss, if brokerage on selling of remaining shares is Rs. 4 per share? [All shares are sold on intraday]

  1. Rs. 55500 

  2. Rs. 60855 

  3. Rs. 56500 

  4. Rs. 57500 

  5. Rs. 58500

Direction: A, B, C, D and E are 5 stock investors. B purchased 2000 shares of reliance capital at 400. He seems market as a bearish and sold all his shares at 390 on next day. A, C and D bought 1000, 700 and 300 of these shares in quantity on the same day respectively. Now A and C sold 500 and 350 shares respectively on the same day and E purchased them at 395

Intraday ⇒ Buy and Sell shares on same day.

Delivery ⇒ Buy and Sell on different days. 

Brokerage charges for Intraday for each transaction = 1%

Brokerage charges for Delivery for each transaction = 0.5%

Question:

If E seems market as a bullish and purchased 200 more shares at 420. He then sold all of them after one year at 500. What is the diff. in profit if he would have sold at 450. 

  1. Rs. 52337.5

  2. Rs. 52287.5 

  3. Rs. 56237.5

  4. Rs. 52437.5

  5. Rs. 52237.5

Direction: A, B, C, D and E are 5 stock investors. B purchased 2000 shares of reliance capital at 400. He seems market as a bearish and sold all his shares at 390 on next day. A, C and D bought 1000, 700 and 300 of these shares in quantity on the same day respectively. Now A and C sold 500 and 350 shares respectively on the same day and E purchased them at 395

Intraday ⇒ Buy and Sell shares on same day.

Delivery ⇒ Buy and Sell on different days. 

Brokerage charges for Intraday for each transaction = 1%

Brokerage charges for Delivery for each transaction = 0.5%

Question:

If A sold all his remaining shares after 1 week at Rs. 420 per share, find his overall profit or loss percentage on these shares only. 

  1. 5.8%

  2. 3.3% 

  3. 6.6% 

  4. 13.2% 

  5. None of these

Direction: A, B, C, D and E are 5 stock investors. B purchased 2000 shares of reliance capital at 400. He seems market as a bearish and sold all his shares at 390 on next day. A, C and D bought 1000, 700 and 300 of these shares in quantity on the same day respectively. Now A and C sold 500 and 350 shares respectively on the same day and E purchased them at 395

Intraday ⇒ Buy and Sell shares on same day.

Delivery ⇒ Buy and Sell on different days. 

Brokerage charges for Intraday for each transaction = 1%

Brokerage charges for Delivery for each transaction = 0.5%

Question:

What is the approximate difference of profit amount earned by C on his remaining shares and profit amount earned by A on his remaining shares, if both of them sold their shares after 6 months at Rs. 500 per share. 

  1. 16000 

  2. 18000 

  3. 20000

  4. 4000

  5. 12000 

Direction: Information about three values have been given, you have to calculate the value of all three quantities and answer the question accordingly. 

Quantity I. 9, 10, 6, 15, -1, X

Quantity II. 10, 6, 5, 8.5, 16, Y

Quantity III. 16, 18, 14, 20, 12, Z

  1. X > Y > Z 

  2. X < Y > Z 

  3. X < Y < Z

  4. X = Y > Z 

  5. X = Y < Z

Direction: Information about three values have been given, you have to calculate the value of all three quantities and answer the question accordingly.

Quantity I. 2, 3, 4, 15, 56, X

Quantity II. 3, 2, 7, 16, 71, Y

Quantity III. 14, 16, 28, 64, 144, Z 

  1. X > Y > Z

  2. X < Y > Z 

  3. X < Y < Z 

  4. X = Y > Z 

     

  5. X = Y < Z

Direction: Information about three values have been given, you have to calculate the value of all three quantities and answer the question accordingly. 

Quantity I. 15, 12, X, 9, 21, 6

Quantity II. 24, 12, 12, Y, 36, 90

Quantity III. 3, 2, 10, Z, 17, 16 

  1. X > Y > Z

  2. X < Y > Z 

  3. X < Y < Z

  4. X = Y > Z 

  5. X = Y < Z

Direction: The following table shows the five different projects named X, Y, Z, M and N and four persons working on it. The second table shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C and D worked on 5 different projects X, Y, Z, M and N. It also shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and table below answer the questions that follow.

Question:

A and B started working on Project X. They completed 1/3rd of work after which they left, and C joined the project. C can complete the whole project in 24 days. After C worked for his assigned number of days, D joined the project and worked for his assigned number of days. Find the number of days in which D can complete the whole Project X?

  1. 45 days 

  2. 36 days 

  3. 18 days

  4. 25 days 

  5. 24 days

Direction: The following table shows the five different projects named X, Y, Z, M and N and four persons working on it. The second table shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C and D worked on 5 different projects X, Y, Z, M and N. It also shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and table below answer the questions that follow.

Question:

A who can complete project Y in 40 days, worked for 12 days. The ratio of number of days in which B and C can complete Project Y alone is 10 : 16. D could not come to work for project Y. Find the number of days in which B and C can complete 13/15 of project Y together, given that if D who can complete work in 24 days had also joined the project for 8 days, the project would have been completed. 

  1.  16 days 

  2. 26 days

  3. 25 days 

  4. 14 days

  5. 18 days

Direction: The following table shows the five different projects named X, Y, Z, M and N and four persons working on it. The second table shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C and D worked on 5 different projects X, Y, Z, M and N. It also shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and table below answer the questions that follow.

Question:

Project Z was to be completed in 12 days. To complete project in time, all A, B, C and D decided to work in pairs in alternate days. A and C on 1st day, B and D on 2nd day, A and C on 3rd, and so on. But they could not complete project in time. What percent of project Z remain uncompleted if A, B, C and D can complete whole project Z in 24, 36, 40 and 30 days respectively?

  1. 26.5%

  2. 23.33%

  3. 33.33% 

  4. 45.5% 

  5. 25% 

Direction: The following table shows the five different projects named X, Y, Z, M and N and four persons working on it. The second table shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C and D worked on 5 different projects X, Y, Z, M and N. It also shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and table below answer the questions that follow.

Question:

B and C can complete the whole project M in 12 days working together. A is 20% more efficient than C and 40% less efficient that B. How many days did D work on project M if D can complete whole project M in 36 days?

  1. 5 days 

  2. 6 days 

  3. 1.5 days 

  4. 3 days

  5. 2 days

Direction: The following table shows the five different projects named X, Y, Z, M and N and four persons working on it. The second table shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C and D worked on 5 different projects X, Y, Z, M and N. It also shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time. 

Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and table below answer the questions that follow.

Question:

A, E and D worked on project N. B and C alone can complete whole project N in 40 and 60 days respectively. E who is 3/2 times efficient than B and C together replaces both of them and worked for same number of days for which B and C had to work. A completed 1/6th of the work. Find in how many days all A, B, C, and D can complete the project N together. 

  1. 130/17 days 

  2. 12 days 

  3. 10 days 

  4. 90/17 days 

  5. 140/13 days

Forbes has compiled a first-ever list of the World's Best Bank 2019. Which of the following banks has topped in Forbes list of Indian banks?

  1. ICICI Bank 

  2. DBS Bank 

  3. Yes Bank 

  4. HDFC Bank 

  5. IDBI Bank

Recently, Indian city has been included in UNESCO's World heritage list. It is ________.

  1. Udaipur 

  2. Jaipur 

  3. Jaisalmer 

  4. Jodhpur

  5. Bikaner 

Which among the following parameters were not included in Global Gender Gap Index Report? 

  1. economic participation 

  2. women participation 

  3. educational attainment 

  4. health

  5. none of the above

Abhijeet Gupta is related to which game? 

  1. Chess 

  2. Badminton 

  3. Basketball 

  4. Hockey 

  5. Billiards

The total deposits in bank accounts opened under the Jan Dhan scheme are ________. The Modi government launched the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana in 2014.

  1. Rs 2 lakh crore 

  2. Rs 1 lakh crore 

  3. Rs 80 crore 

  4. Rs 90 crore 

  5. Rs 70 crore

NCLAT order on Essar Steel has rewritten IBC rules. What is full form of NCLAT?

  1. National Company Legal Appellate Tribunal

  2. National Company Law Advisory Tribunal

  3. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal

  4. National Company Law Appellate Tarrif 

  5. None of the above 

A Public Sector Enterprise, NSIL has been incorporated as a new commercial arm of the Department of Space to tap the benefits of the Research & Development carried out by ISRO. What does 'I' stands for in NSIL? 

  1. India 

  2. Institute 

  3. Innovate 

  4. Indigenous 

  5. Index

Pinaka is a multi barrel rocket launcher produced by?

  1. DRDO 

  2. ISRO

  3. CSIR

  4. HAL 

  5. None of the above

Where will a Centre for Disability Sports be set up to ensure the effective participation of Persons with Disabilities in sports activities? 

  1. Kanpur 

  2. Gwalior

  3. Indore

  4. Lucknow 

  5. Bhopal

Who bagged the International Cricketer and Batsman of the Year award during the CEAT Cricket Rating (CCR) International awards 2019?

  1. AB de Villiers

  2. Virat Kohli 

  3. MS Dhoni 

  4. Hardik Pandya

  5. Chris Gayle

TReDS is an online electronic institutional mechanism for facilitating the financing of trade receivables of micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME) through multiple financiers.It is a joint trade venture of NSE and _________

  1. RBI 

  2. SIDBI

  3. NABARD 

  4. SBI 

  5. None of the above

Who became the 1st woman to cross the Atlantic Ocean solo in a LSA?

  1. Mitali Madhumita 

  2. Priya Jhingan

  3. Deepika Misra 

  4. Aarohi Pandit 

  5. Avani Chaturvedi

With which of the following countries is the 1st Model Village having 2400 houses built with Indian assistance?

  1. Sri Lanka 

  2. Bangladesh

  3. Myanmar 

  4. Japan 

  5. Nepal

What is the theme for International Day of Happiness 2019? 

  1. Happier Together 

  2. Share Happiness 

  3. Be Happy 

  4. Spread Happiness 

  5. Happier Today

‘Wings’, a specially designed mentorship program to empower the female workforce, was launched by which company?

  1. Aviva Life Insurance 

  2. Bajaj Life insurance 

  3. LIC 

  4. ICICI Life 

  5. SBI Life

G20 summit held at ________.

  1. Osaka 

  2. Hiroshima 

  3. Kyoto

  4. Nagoya

  5. Kobe

Who clinched a gold medal in the World Universiade in 100 m dash event at Napoli in Italy in July 2019? 

  1. Hima Das 

  2. Swapna Barman

  3. Manika Batra

  4. Dutee Chand

  5. M. R. Poovamma

Who has been appointed as an additional director on the board of Yes Bank for two years from May 2019?

  1. Rama Subramaniam Gandhi

  2. Urjit Patel

  3. Harun Rashid Khan 

  4. Rakesh Mohan 

  5. Y. Venugopal Reddy

Which state is set to launch a major water conservation scheme titled ‘Jalamrutha’? 

  1. Kerala

  2. Tamil Nadu 

  3. Andhra Pradesh 

  4. Karnataka

  5. Telangana

With which of the following did India's BSE and the India International Exchange Limited sign an MoU to connect the investors’ community and companies and allow a capital formation platform on a larger scale?

  1. RBK Group 

  2. Finam Holdings

  3. Moscow Exchange 

  4. Bloomberg 

  5. Rosneft

ICICI has signed a MoU with Small Business FinCredit India Pvt Ltd on 4 January 2019 for jointly providing loans worth up to________ to the MSMEs?

  1. 5 crore 

  2. 1 crore 

  3. 2 crore 

  4. 3 crore 

  5. None of the above

Which of the following banks will be buying a stake in BSE subsidiary INX for Rs.31 crore?

  1. ICICI bank 

  2. SBI 

  3. Canara Bank 

  4. HDFC bank

  5. Axis bank

The Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) can be traded using the RBI‘s _______ 

  1. e-Kuber platform 

  2. NEFT 

  3. RTGS 

  4. None of the above 

  5. Cannot be determined

Apart from resident individuals, HUFs, Trusts and Charitable Institutions, the Sovereign gold scheme is eligible for whom?

  1. Religious organisations 

  2. Universities 

  3. Financial organisations 

  4. Government Organisations

  5. Schools 

Which is the best company to work for in India in 2019, according to LinkedIn? 

  1. Uber 

  2. TCS 

  3. Flipkart (Walmart) 

  4. Oyo 

  5. One97 Communications (Paytm)

The government has set up a working group to revise WPI, giving roadmap to shift to PPI. This group is headed by

  1. Dr. Vinod Paul 

  2. Amitabh Kant 

  3. Rajiv Kumar 

  4. Ramesh Chand 

  5. Rao Inderjit Singh

Which railway zone's strategy named as 'Plan Bee' has won the ‘Best Innovation Award’ in Indian Railways for the 2018-19 fiscal? 

  1. Western Railway 

  2. Northeast Frontier Railway 

  3. North Central Railway

  4. East Central Railway 

  5. Central Railway

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched ________ on its website for facilitating RBI’s grievance redressal process.

  1. Client Management System

  2. Complaint Management System 

  3. Commercial Management System

  4. Corporate Management System

  5. Crucial Management System 

How much fund has been allocated under Budget 2019 to boost public sector banks?

  1. Rs 50,000 crore 

  2. Rs 60,000 crore 

  3. Rs 70,000 crore 

  4. Rs 80,000 crore 

  5. Rs 90,000 crore

________ will be set up in the current fiscal year as a part of the measures to deepen the bond market.

  1. Corporate Gain Enhancement Corporation

  2. Corporate Guarantee Enhancement Corporation

  3. Credit Gain Enhancement Corporation 

  4. Credit Guarantee Enhancement Corporation

  5. None of these

RBI has set up a committee for development of housing finance securitisation market, headed by?

  1. Sri Rajan 

  2. Harsh Vardhan 

  3. Suresh Nag 

  4. Rahul Gupta

  5. None of these

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a Three Year Roadmap Project 'UTKARSH'. It is meant for what purpose?

  1. Coordination and supervision 

  2. Supervision and regulation 

  3. Coordination and regulation 

  4. Monitoring and coordination 

  5. Monitoring and supervision

Which state has the highest rate of refilling LPG under the UJJWALA scheme?

  1. Uttarakhand

  2. West Bengal 

  3. Delhi

  4. Telangana 

  5. Chhattisgarh

Where was NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), officially inaugurated? 

  1. Hyderabad 

  2. Bengaluru 

  3. Pune 

  4. New Delhi

  5. Mumbai

A $250 million loan to Kerala will be provided by which bank for disaster management?

  1. RBI 

  2. SBI

  3. World Bank 

  4. ICICI Bank

  5. Yes Bank

In IFSC, the fifth character 0 is reserved for ________.

  1. Future Utilization 

  2. Past Utilization

  3. Present Utilization

  4. All-time Utilization

  5. None of these

The Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman Yojana has been launched by which state?

  1. Uttar Pradesh 

  2. Jharkhand 

  3. Bihar 

  4. Odisha 

  5. Madhya Pradesh

What is the targeted Fiscal Deficit the year 2018-2019?

  1. remain as it is

  2. 2% 

  3. 3.3% 

  4. 3.8% 

  5. 3.2% 

Which state will give unemployment allowance up to Rs 3,500 to unemployed youth having graduation or equivalent degree under the Chief Minister Yuva Sambal Yojana from February 2019?

  1. Haryana

  2. Chhattisgarh

  3. Rajasthan 

  4. Madhya Pradesh 

  5. Bihar 

Which bank has signed a deal with the Commonwealth Bank of Australia for block chain technology?

  1. Asian Development Bank

  2. World Bank 

  3. BRICS bank

  4. RBI

  5. SBI

The following sentences have been given in a jumbled manner. Un-jumble the sentences and answer the option which describes the order of sentences in a correct manner.

A. India's government is in talks with foreign lenders to provide as much as $14.5 billion in credit to millions of its small firms, two officials said, in a sign, the country's banking system may not be robust enough to do the job on its own

B. India's micro, small and medium enterprise(MSME) ministry is discussing the proposal to pull in foreign banks with the country's ministry of finance, which will make a final call.

C. The push for foreign loans comes on the heels of the Indian government's announcement earlier this month that it plans to borrow about 700 billion rupees by issuing overseas sovereign bonds.

D. The government is in discussions with multiple foreign lenders, including Germany's state-owned development bank KfW Group, the World Bank and some Canadian institutions to extend lines of credit to small enterprises

E. One official said that the government plans to source up to 1 trillion Indian rupees of loans from foreign institutions because Indian banks were not in a position to provide enough capital for the small business sector, which is seen as critical to job creation.

  1. ABCED 

  2. ACDEB 

  3. BCDEA 

  4. CBADE

  5. EDCBA

Each question in the comprehension given below lists a number of sentences/parts of sentences which need to be un-jumbled in order to produce a paragraph. Choose the correct option corresponding to the correct order of sentences/parts of sentences. Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. India may have to revise downwards what is considered its “potential” rate of

B. Has argued in a paper. This paper comes as a follow-up to the one Mr. Subramanian published last month, in which he had argued that India’s GDP growth in the 2011-17 period

C. Had been overestimated by 2.5 percentage points and that the actual growth rate was about 4.5%

D. Growth from 7-8% to bring expectations more in line with reality, former Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) Arvind Subramanian

  1. BCDA

  2. BADC

  3. ACDB 

  4. ADBC 

  5. DBCA

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. The follow-up paper published earlier this month is an attempt to address those criticisms.

B. The original paper drew a lot of criticism over its methodology and assertions.

C. While the paper goes into some detail in addressing the statistical issues raised about the original, it also highlights certain cognitive arguments made against it and tries to show why those are unfounded

D. the key highlights of which Mr. Subramanian had presented in a lecture

  1. CBAD 

  2. BDAC 

  3. ABDC

  4. DACB 

  5. ADCB

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. Did in the pre-1980 Hindu rate of growth period,

B. Was how India can, right now, grow at the same rate as it

C. The first question raised, Mr. Subramanian said

D. When the economic condition was clearly much worse. 

  1. CBAD

  2. BCAD 

  3. ABCD 

  4. ACDB

  5. DBCA

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. And the population growth rate was 2%, yielding a

B. Per capita growth rate of 1-1.5%. So, today’s 4.5% represents

C. More than a doubling of the old “Hindu” per capita growth rate"

D. “To begin with, today’s 4.5% translates into a per capita growth rate of about 3%,” he said. “In the pre-1980s era, the GDP growth rate was about 3-3.5%

  1. BCDA 

  2. ACDB 

  3. DABC 

  4. BADC

  5. ABCD

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. Would result in compromising its “autonomy and its ability to function effectively”

B. To the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) has met with a strong opposition from the regulatory body. The capital markets regulator feels that the proposal

C. The government’s proposal to transfer surplus money with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

D. Towards the progress and development of the Indian securities market. 

  1. ACBD 

  2. CBAD 

  3. CDBA 

  4. BDCA 

  5. ADCB

Which of the above-given sentences/parts of sentences unjumbled does not fit in the pattern of the whole argument/idea?

1.looking to Canada, Japan, and other countries

2. with less cumbersome and more

3.a tourist resort there to earn

4. already, Indian techies have started

5. welcoming immigration processes

  1. 2

  2. 4

  3. 5

  4. 1

  5. 3

Read the passage and based on it choose one of the given inferences that you draw from it.

Across most parts of India (26 of 29 states and 5 of 7 Union Territories), over 200 cities/towns and over a thousand villages, areas around rivers are most productive and also some of the well-irrigated ones like in Punjab. Coastal Andhra produces 3 crops of rice coupled with coconut, fisheries, poultry, and dairy which make it perhaps the money-making land in the country. How can the agricultural land of the Indian-subcontinent be described? 

  1. Fatuous

  2. Punctilious 

  3. Arbitrary

  4. Fecund

  5. Perilous

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given six options. Match the words which would appear in the first and second blanks, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

I do not think we are going to build up international ___________ by approaching other nations in a spirit of __________ self-righteousness. 

A. Confidence D. Unctuous

B. Ludicrous    E. Isthmus

C. Effable        F. Inevitable

  1. A-D, B-D

  2. A-D 

  3. E-C

  4. C-F, D-C

  5. B-E

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given six options. Match the words which would appear in the first and second blanks, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

The company is currently trying to ______ its socially ______ image. 

A. Effluent    D. Schmooze

B. Burnish    E. Irate

C. Didactic   F. Responsible

  1. B - D, D - A 

  2. B - F 

  3. F - A

  4. E - C

  5. A - E, B - E

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given six options. Match the words which would appear in the first and second blanks, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

A serpent was an _______ creature that looked thoroughly _______-not something anyone would want around his home. 

A. Obsequious  D. Obscene

B. Blase            E. Repulsive

C. Oleaginous   F. Fulsome

  1. B-F 

  2. A-E, C-E 

  3. B-E, C-F 

  4. A-E, F-A

  5. C-E 

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

China's economic growth has slumped to its lowest level in nearly three decades, but the trade war with the United States isn't solely to blame.  

Gross domestic product growth dropped to 6.2% in the second quarter, the weakest since the government started publishing quarterly figures in 1992, the national statistics authority said this week. Soon after the figures were published, President Donald Trump tweeted this:

"The United States Tariffs are having a major effect on companies wanting to leave China for non-tariffed countries. Thousands of companies are leaving. This is why China wants to make a deal with the U.S. and wishes it had not broken the original deal in the first place." 

Despite a truce agreed between Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping last month, US tariffs on $250 billion worth of Chinese goods remain in place and have already hit China's manufacturing and agricultural sectors. Some American companies are also switching to suppliers in other Asian countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, South Korea, and Bangladesh. But analysts argue that the yearlong trade war is not the biggest drag on the world's second-largest economy. The slowdown has as much to do with a debt mountain and cautious consumers. 

China has been struggling for years to rein in high levels of debt, arising from a massive stimulus package launched during the 2008 financial crisis. While the stimulus boosted economic growth, it resulted in a $40 trillion mountain of government, corporate and household debt worth more than 300% of China's GDP as of March 2019, according to a report from the Washington-based Institute of International Finance this week

China's overall debt now accounts for about 15% of the global total, the IIF added. The Chinese government has reacted by tightening regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending, and clamping down on unregulated lending, also known as shadow banking. But these efforts to reduce China's reliance on debt-fueled growth have also made it more difficult for companies to obtain financing, especially private sector firms that usually find it harder to raise funds from banks than larger but less efficient state-run firms.

Question:

What did Donald Trump refer to as the main reason behind the slump in China's economy?

  1. The United States tarfifs are having a huge impact on China's economy

  2. The Chinese export-import business has faced a lot of losses recently 

  3. The Chinese government's penetration into the Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) market turned out to be a problem 

  4. The Chinese government has faced losses due to its army

  5. None of the above

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

China's economic growth has slumped to its lowest level in nearly three decades, but the trade war with the United States isn't solely to blame.  

Gross domestic product growth dropped to 6.2% in the second quarter, the weakest since the government started publishing quarterly figures in 1992, the national statistics authority said this week. Soon after the figures were published, President Donald Trump tweeted this:

"The United States Tariffs are having a major effect on companies wanting to leave China for non-tariffed countries. Thousands of companies are leaving. This is why China wants to make a deal with the U.S. and wishes it had not broken the original deal in the first place." 

Despite a truce agreed between Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping last month, US tariffs on $250 billion worth of Chinese goods remain in place and have already hit China's manufacturing and agricultural sectors. Some American companies are also switching to suppliers in other Asian countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, South Korea, and Bangladesh. But analysts argue that the yearlong trade war is not the biggest drag on the world's second-largest economy. The slowdown has as much to do with a debt mountain and cautious consumers. 

China has been struggling for years to rein in high levels of debt, arising from a massive stimulus package launched during the 2008 financial crisis. While the stimulus boosted economic growth, it resulted in a $40 trillion mountain of government, corporate and household debt worth more than 300% of China's GDP as of March 2019, according to a report from the Washington-based Institute of International Finance this week

China's overall debt now accounts for about 15% of the global total, the IIF added. The Chinese government has reacted by tightening regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending, and clamping down on unregulated lending, also known as shadow banking. But these efforts to reduce China's reliance on debt-fueled growth have also made it more difficult for companies to obtain financing, especially private sector firms that usually find it harder to raise funds from banks than larger but less efficient state-run firms.

Question:

What have analysts argued as the main reason behind the slump in China's economy? 

  1. China's economy cannot sustain foreign made products 

  2. There is a debt mountain and a lot of cautious consumers 

  3. China is looking forward to wage a war against America

  4. China is looking to promote indigenous products 

  5. None of the above

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

China's economic growth has slumped to its lowest level in nearly three decades, but the trade war with the United States isn't solely to blame.  

Gross domestic product growth dropped to 6.2% in the second quarter, the weakest since the government started publishing quarterly figures in 1992, the national statistics authority said this week. Soon after the figures were published, President Donald Trump tweeted this:

"The United States Tariffs are having a major effect on companies wanting to leave China for non-tariffed countries. Thousands of companies are leaving. This is why China wants to make a deal with the U.S. and wishes it had not broken the original deal in the first place." 

Despite a truce agreed between Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping last month, US tariffs on $250 billion worth of Chinese goods remain in place and have already hit China's manufacturing and agricultural sectors. Some American companies are also switching to suppliers in other Asian countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, South Korea, and Bangladesh. But analysts argue that the yearlong trade war is not the biggest drag on the world's second-largest economy. The slowdown has as much to do with a debt mountain and cautious consumers. 

China has been struggling for years to rein in high levels of debt, arising from a massive stimulus package launched during the 2008 financial crisis. While the stimulus boosted economic growth, it resulted in a $40 trillion mountain of government, corporate and household debt worth more than 300% of China's GDP as of March 2019, according to a report from the Washington-based Institute of International Finance this week

China's overall debt now accounts for about 15% of the global total, the IIF added. The Chinese government has reacted by tightening regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending, and clamping down on unregulated lending, also known as shadow banking. But these efforts to reduce China's reliance on debt-fueled growth have also made it more difficult for companies to obtain financing, especially private sector firms that usually find it harder to raise funds from banks than larger but less efficient state-run firms.

Question:

How has the Chinese government tackled this issue?

  1. It has threatened to go offensive with China banning most American products 

  2. It will try to cut down on its costs by regulating import-export

  3.  It will tighten regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending and stopping unregulated lending 

  4. It will clamp down on shadow banking 

  5. None of the above

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

China's economic growth has slumped to its lowest level in nearly three decades, but the trade war with the United States isn't solely to blame.  

Gross domestic product growth dropped to 6.2% in the second quarter, the weakest since the government started publishing quarterly figures in 1992, the national statistics authority said this week. Soon after the figures were published, President Donald Trump tweeted this:

"The United States Tariffs are having a major effect on companies wanting to leave China for non-tariffed countries. Thousands of companies are leaving. This is why China wants to make a deal with the U.S. and wishes it had not broken the original deal in the first place." 

Despite a truce agreed between Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping last month, US tariffs on $250 billion worth of Chinese goods remain in place and have already hit China's manufacturing and agricultural sectors. Some American companies are also switching to suppliers in other Asian countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, South Korea, and Bangladesh. But analysts argue that the yearlong trade war is not the biggest drag on the world's second-largest economy. The slowdown has as much to do with a debt mountain and cautious consumers. 

China has been struggling for years to rein in high levels of debt, arising from a massive stimulus package launched during the 2008 financial crisis. While the stimulus boosted economic growth, it resulted in a $40 trillion mountain of government, corporate and household debt worth more than 300% of China's GDP as of March 2019, according to a report from the Washington-based Institute of International Finance this week

China's overall debt now accounts for about 15% of the global total, the IIF added. The Chinese government has reacted by tightening regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending, and clamping down on unregulated lending, also known as shadow banking. But these efforts to reduce China's reliance on debt-fueled growth have also made it more difficult for companies to obtain financing, especially private sector firms that usually find it harder to raise funds from banks than larger but less efficient state-run firms.

Question:

Give the synonym of the word 'stimulus' 

  1. Repugnant 

  2. Obsolete 

  3. Fillip 

  4. Ransack 

  5. Troublesome 

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings the event affords on its sidelines than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the world’s nominal GDP, and each has pressing issues it wishes to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 summit at Osaka for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump’s meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Both ended on a cordial note, but with no breakthrough or “big deals”.

The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will sit down again, as they have on at least three occasions in the past year, to try to resolve the impasse over trade issues, and the U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues. Both come as a relief to India, given the impact of those tensions on the national and global economies. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.

With Saudi Arabia hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, all eyes will soon turn to the agenda India plans to highlight when it holds the G-20 summit in 2022. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. 

Question:

Which of the following is a synonym of “Impasse”?

  1. Plebiscite

  2. Stand-off

  3. Probate

  4. Protraction

  5. Cessation

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings the event affords on its sidelines than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the world’s nominal GDP, and each has pressing issues it wishes to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 summit at Osaka for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump’s meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Both ended on a cordial note, but with no breakthrough or “big deals”.

The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will sit down again, as they have on at least three occasions in the past year, to try to resolve the impasse over trade issues, and the U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues. Both come as a relief to India, given the impact of those tensions on the national and global economies. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.

With Saudi Arabia hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, all eyes will soon turn to the agenda India plans to highlight when it holds the G-20 summit in 2022. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. 

Question:

Which of the following is true according to the above passage?

  1. This 2019 G-20 summit is the first to be hosted by Japan.

  2. Climate change funding was a concern raised by the Indian prime minister at the G-20 meetings. 

  3. The 2019 G20 Summit discussed eight themes to Ensure Global Sustainable Development. 

  4. The Chinese government wanted to de-list the Hong Kong protests issue from the summit’s agenda for the year. 

  5. The 2018 G20 Buenos Aires summit was the thirteenth meeting of Group of Twenty (G20).

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings the event affords on its sidelines than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the world’s nominal GDP, and each has pressing issues it wishes to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 summit at Osaka for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump’s meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Both ended on a cordial note, but with no breakthrough or “big deals”.

The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will sit down again, as they have on at least three occasions in the past year, to try to resolve the impasse over trade issues, and the U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues. Both come as a relief to India, given the impact of those tensions on the national and global economies. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.

With Saudi Arabia hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, all eyes will soon turn to the agenda India plans to highlight when it holds the G-20 summit in 2022. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. 

Question:

Which of the following can be validated from the 3rd paragraph?

  1. In the 2020 G-20, Saudi will address the subject of technology-driven terrorism.

  2. The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues. 

  3. The G-20 must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members. 

  4. The 2021 G-20 will not be hosted by India

  5. A number of attending countries have said that they focused on the regulation of crypto-currencies at this meeting.

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings the event affords on its sidelines than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the world’s nominal GDP, and each has pressing issues it wishes to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 summit at Osaka for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump’s meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Both ended on a cordial note, but with no breakthrough or “big deals”.

The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will sit down again, as they have on at least three occasions in the past year, to try to resolve the impasse over trade issues, and the U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues. Both come as a relief to India, given the impact of those tensions on the national and global economies. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.

With Saudi Arabia hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, all eyes will soon turn to the agenda India plans to highlight when it holds the G-20 summit in 2022. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. 

Question:

According to the above passage, why did India not attend the digital economy summit pushed Shinzo Abe? 

  1. Japan refused to help finance many infrastructure projects in India, most notably the Delhi Metro system. 

  2. In 2007, the Japanese Self-Defence Forces and the Indian Navy locked horns in a joint naval exercise Malabar 2007 in the Indian Ocean. 

  3. The Japanese Prime Minister’s plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, opposes the proposed data localization guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India. 

  4. Japan's emergence as a power in the early 20th century was negatively viewed in India.

  5. Many Indian independence movement activists had escaped from British rule to Japan but they were captured and put in jail. 

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings the event affords on its sidelines than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the world’s nominal GDP, and each has pressing issues it wishes to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 summit at Osaka for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump’s meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Both ended on a cordial note, but with no breakthrough or “big deals”.

The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will sit down again, as they have on at least three occasions in the past year, to try to resolve the impasse over trade issues, and the U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues. Both come as a relief to India, given the impact of those tensions on the national and global economies. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.

With Saudi Arabia hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, all eyes will soon turn to the agenda India plans to highlight when it holds the G-20 summit in 2022. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system. 

Question:

According to the above passage, what was the most awaited event at the 2019 G-20? 

  1. The discussions between U.S. and Paris regarding issues such as ocean pollution management and gender equality. 

  2. The issuing of a statement considering the Hong Kong Protests as China’s internal affairs by the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the People's Republic of China. 

  3. President Mauricio Macri of Argentina accepting the one-year G20 presidency during an official ceremony at the Kirchner Cultural Centre in Buenos Aires.

  4. Argentina put forth three agenda priorities for the G20 dialogue: the future of work, infrastructure for development and a sustainable food future.

  5. The meetings between Donald Trump, Xi Jinping and Narendra Modi 

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives. 

Comparing data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern stereo satellites, scientists have shown that Himalayan glaciers have lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975, with melting occurring twice as fast after the turn of the century as average temperatures rose. In the 1970s, at the height of the Cold War, the U.S. had deployed spy satellites that orbited the globe and took thousands of photographs, using a telescopic camera system, for reconnaissance purposes. Film recovery capsules would be ejected from the KH-9 Hexagon military satellites and parachuted back to Earth over the Pacific Ocean. 

More than four decades later, scientists are using those same images to show the devastating impact of a warming earth on the Himalayan glaciers. The overlapping images, each covering 30,000 square kilometres with a ground resolution of six to nine metres, have been pieced together to form digital elevation models of the Himalayas of that era. In an article published in the Science Advances journal on Wednesday, J.M. Maurer and co-authors analysed four decades of ice loss for 650 of the largest glaciers across a 2,000 km transect across the Himalayas. “Our observed annual mass losses suggest that of the total ice mass present in 1975, about 87% remained in 2000 and 72% remained in 2016,” the study’s authors wrote. “We find similar mass loss rates across subregions and a doubling of the average rate of loss during 2000–2016 relative to the 1975–2000 interval,” they added. The study goes on to assert that rising temperatures are responsible for the accelerating loss. 

Question:

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

  1. High Mountain Asia includes all mountain ranges surrounding the Tibetan Plateau.

  2. Film recovery capsules would be ejected from the KH-9 Hexagon military satellites during the 1970s.

  3.  Scientists compared data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern stereo satellites to show results of global warming.

  4. Himalayan glaciers have lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975. 

  5. J.M. Maurer and his co-authors analysed four decades of ice loss for 650 of the largest glaciers across a 2,000 km transect across the Himalayas.

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives. 

Comparing data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern stereo satellites, scientists have shown that Himalayan glaciers have lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975, with melting occurring twice as fast after the turn of the century as average temperatures rose. In the 1970s, at the height of the Cold War, the U.S. had deployed spy satellites that orbited the globe and took thousands of photographs, using a telescopic camera system, for reconnaissance purposes. Film recovery capsules would be ejected from the KH-9 Hexagon military satellites and parachuted back to Earth over the Pacific Ocean. 

More than four decades later, scientists are using those same images to show the devastating impact of a warming earth on the Himalayan glaciers. The overlapping images, each covering 30,000 square kilometres with a ground resolution of six to nine metres, have been pieced together to form digital elevation models of the Himalayas of that era. In an article published in the Science Advances journal on Wednesday, J.M. Maurer and co-authors analysed four decades of ice loss for 650 of the largest glaciers across a 2,000 km transect across the Himalayas. “Our observed annual mass losses suggest that of the total ice mass present in 1975, about 87% remained in 2000 and 72% remained in 2016,” the study’s authors wrote. “We find similar mass loss rates across subregions and a doubling of the average rate of loss during 2000–2016 relative to the 1975–2000 interval,” they added. The study goes on to assert that rising temperatures are responsible for the accelerating loss. 

Question:

Which of the following words is the most similar in meaning to the word "reconnaissance" as given in the passage?

  1. Investigation 

  2. Etiquette 

  3. Propriety 

  4. Consultation 

  5. Armistice

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives. 

Comparing data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern stereo satellites, scientists have shown that Himalayan glaciers have lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975, with melting occurring twice as fast after the turn of the century as average temperatures rose. In the 1970s, at the height of the Cold War, the U.S. had deployed spy satellites that orbited the globe and took thousands of photographs, using a telescopic camera system, for reconnaissance purposes. Film recovery capsules would be ejected from the KH-9 Hexagon military satellites and parachuted back to Earth over the Pacific Ocean. 

More than four decades later, scientists are using those same images to show the devastating impact of a warming earth on the Himalayan glaciers. The overlapping images, each covering 30,000 square kilometres with a ground resolution of six to nine metres, have been pieced together to form digital elevation models of the Himalayas of that era. In an article published in the Science Advances journal on Wednesday, J.M. Maurer and co-authors analysed four decades of ice loss for 650 of the largest glaciers across a 2,000 km transect across the Himalayas. “Our observed annual mass losses suggest that of the total ice mass present in 1975, about 87% remained in 2000 and 72% remained in 2016,” the study’s authors wrote. “We find similar mass loss rates across subregions and a doubling of the average rate of loss during 2000–2016 relative to the 1975–2000 interval,” they added. The study goes on to assert that rising temperatures are responsible for the accelerating loss. 

Question:

Which of the sentences below summarizes the theme of the passage?,

  1. J.M. Maurer and co-authors publish an article in the Science Advances journal. 

  2. Of the total ice mass present in 1975, only about 87% remained in 2000. 

  3. A study shows that the Himalayan glaciers are melting twice as fast since 2000.

  4. Of the total ice mass present in 1975, 72% remained in 2016. 

  5. U.S. deployed spy satellites at the height of the Cold War. 

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

Whirlpool has admitted that there could be up to 800,000 faulty tumble dryers in UK homes that have an increased fire risk, higher than previously thought. Last month the government ordered a recall of 500,000 tumble dryers, four years after fire safety concerns were first raised by the US home appliance maker. The affected brands are Hotpoint, Indesit, Creda, Swan and Proline. 

However, company executives appearing before MPs on the business, energy and industrial strategy (BEIS) committee on Tuesday admitted the number could be higher. Jeff Noel, corporate vice-president of communications and public affairs at Whirlpool, said estimates of faulty dryers in UK homes ranged from 250,000 to 800,000. He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff. The company logged 54 fires related to this issue in recent years, including three in machines that had been modified, according to Michael Farrington, another executive.

Noel said Whirlpool wanted to expand the recall campaign so that consumers have the option of a free-of-charge modification, a free replacement, or a discounted upgrade. This still has to be approved by the regulator. MPs also heard from a customer, Jemma Spurr, whose modified Hotpoint dryer caught fire last September while she was at home with her young children, causing significant damage to her house. She told MPs that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers. She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation. Noel apologized to her during the hearing. He said confidentiality agreements were required by insurers during settlements but, when pressed by Rachel Reeves, chair of the BEIS committee, pledged to raise the issue with them.  

Question:

How has Jeff Noel suggested Whirlpool is going to tackle the faulty dryers? 

  1. He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff. 

  2. He said Whirlpool will launch a new technology which will use ultraviolet radiation to block the fire

  3. He said that such incidents are commonplace accidents

  4. He said that three machines have already been modified to control fires. 

  5. None of the above 

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

Whirlpool has admitted that there could be up to 800,000 faulty tumble dryers in UK homes that have an increased fire risk, higher than previously thought. Last month the government ordered a recall of 500,000 tumble dryers, four years after fire safety concerns were first raised by the US home appliance maker. The affected brands are Hotpoint, Indesit, Creda, Swan and Proline. 

However, company executives appearing before MPs on the business, energy and industrial strategy (BEIS) committee on Tuesday admitted the number could be higher. Jeff Noel, corporate vice-president of communications and public affairs at Whirlpool, said estimates of faulty dryers in UK homes ranged from 250,000 to 800,000. He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff. The company logged 54 fires related to this issue in recent years, including three in machines that had been modified, according to Michael Farrington, another executive.

Noel said Whirlpool wanted to expand the recall campaign so that consumers have the option of a free-of-charge modification, a free replacement, or a discounted upgrade. This still has to be approved by the regulator. MPs also heard from a customer, Jemma Spurr, whose modified Hotpoint dryer caught fire last September while she was at home with her young children, causing significant damage to her house. She told MPs that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers. She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation. Noel apologized to her during the hearing. He said confidentiality agreements were required by insurers during settlements but, when pressed by Rachel Reeves, chair of the BEIS committee, pledged to raise the issue with them.  

Question:

What does Jemma Spurr have to say about this issue? 

  1. She said she had received an apology from Whirlpool and a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and signed a non-disclosure agreement after receiving any compensation. 

  2. She told the Prime Minister's cabinet that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers.

  3. She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation. 

  4. She said that the dryers were not approved by the regulator 

  5. None of the above

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

Whirlpool has admitted that there could be up to 800,000 faulty tumble dryers in UK homes that have an increased fire risk, higher than previously thought. Last month the government ordered a recall of 500,000 tumble dryers, four years after fire safety concerns were first raised by the US home appliance maker. The affected brands are Hotpoint, Indesit, Creda, Swan and Proline. 

However, company executives appearing before MPs on the business, energy and industrial strategy (BEIS) committee on Tuesday admitted the number could be higher. Jeff Noel, corporate vice-president of communications and public affairs at Whirlpool, said estimates of faulty dryers in UK homes ranged from 250,000 to 800,000. He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff. The company logged 54 fires related to this issue in recent years, including three in machines that had been modified, according to Michael Farrington, another executive.

Noel said Whirlpool wanted to expand the recall campaign so that consumers have the option of a free-of-charge modification, a free replacement, or a discounted upgrade. This still has to be approved by the regulator. MPs also heard from a customer, Jemma Spurr, whose modified Hotpoint dryer caught fire last September while she was at home with her young children, causing significant damage to her house. She told MPs that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers. She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation. Noel apologized to her during the hearing. He said confidentiality agreements were required by insurers during settlements but, when pressed by Rachel Reeves, chair of the BEIS committee, pledged to raise the issue with them.  

Question:

Give the meaning of the word 'fluff'. 

  1. Fuzz 

  2. Snooze 

  3. Snuff 

  4. Char

  5. None of these

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions given below

Patrol Cpl. John Pritchard always knew he’d one day get involved with law enforcement. That was after he got over his initial stint of wanting to be a bus driver. After that desire faded, at the age of 5, he settled on joining the police force. He stayed committed to those young dreams, having spent his whole life in some kind of law enforcement role — the longest being 35 years of service at the Mercer Island Police Department.

He began in 1984, at age 31. Last month, Pritchard retired at the age of 66 and the city said goodbye to one of its longest-serving employees. The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer. “I really appreciated John’s approach to law enforcement,” said police Chief Ed Holmes. “Not only did he have institutional knowledge … but he had direct positive connections with citizens and business owners, many of whom reached out to attend his retirement party.” Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens. He would speak of how things used to be. Fellow officers even called him “Pappy.”

Others at the police department agreed. “When I first started my career at MIPD, John was always eager to teach me new things and had a unique approach to police work,” corporal Todd Roggenkamp said. “His positive attitude and good work ethic were very appreciated. I will miss how he called everybody ‘Kid’ even if they were over 50.” During Pritchard’s career, he spent time in the military police and as a campus cop at the University of Washington. He began working narcotics at UW, but it wasn’t long before he moved on to a position at Mercer Island PD. At the department is where he got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations. 

Pritchard worked with the Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies including U.S. Customs, DEA, IRS, FBI, Secret Service and NW High-Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA). He worked on local, regional and international investigations and received numerous awards as a result. One of Pritchard’s final cases resulted in more than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds being distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department. 

Of all the investigative work, Pritchard found the most amusement from the “financial stuff,” he said. He worked to track dirty money (cash obtained unlawfully) that was hidden in insurance policies, cars, bank accounts, and investments. Sometimes organizations would ship money out of the country. After he found the money, he would take it away. “The mental challenge was the fun part,” Pritchard said. “There’s nothing better than to find some guy selling a lot of cocaine, find his money and take it away. He can sit there and play the bigshot until we come and take all the toys he bought with that drug money — houses, cars, boats, you name it.” 

Question:

Give the synonym of 'stint'.

  1. Stretch

  2. Rule 

  3. Caustic 

  4. Fiefdom

  5. None of the above

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions given below

Patrol Cpl. John Pritchard always knew he’d one day get involved with law enforcement. That was after he got over his initial stint of wanting to be a bus driver. After that desire faded, at the age of 5, he settled on joining the police force. He stayed committed to those young dreams, having spent his whole life in some kind of law enforcement role — the longest being 35 years of service at the Mercer Island Police Department.

He began in 1984, at age 31. Last month, Pritchard retired at the age of 66 and the city said goodbye to one of its longest-serving employees. The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer. “I really appreciated John’s approach to law enforcement,” said police Chief Ed Holmes. “Not only did he have institutional knowledge … but he had direct positive connections with citizens and business owners, many of whom reached out to attend his retirement party.” Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens. He would speak of how things used to be. Fellow officers even called him “Pappy.”

Others at the police department agreed. “When I first started my career at MIPD, John was always eager to teach me new things and had a unique approach to police work,” corporal Todd Roggenkamp said. “His positive attitude and good work ethic were very appreciated. I will miss how he called everybody ‘Kid’ even if they were over 50.” During Pritchard’s career, he spent time in the military police and as a campus cop at the University of Washington. He began working narcotics at UW, but it wasn’t long before he moved on to a position at Mercer Island PD. At the department is where he got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations. 

Pritchard worked with the Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies including U.S. Customs, DEA, IRS, FBI, Secret Service and NW High-Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA). He worked on local, regional and international investigations and received numerous awards as a result. One of Pritchard’s final cases resulted in more than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds being distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department. 

Of all the investigative work, Pritchard found the most amusement from the “financial stuff,” he said. He worked to track dirty money (cash obtained unlawfully) that was hidden in insurance policies, cars, bank accounts, and investments. Sometimes organizations would ship money out of the country. After he found the money, he would take it away. “The mental challenge was the fun part,” Pritchard said. “There’s nothing better than to find some guy selling a lot of cocaine, find his money and take it away. He can sit there and play the bigshot until we come and take all the toys he bought with that drug money — houses, cars, boats, you name it.” 

Question:

Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage?

  1. He got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations. 

  2. Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens. 

  3. Other officers called him 'Pappy'. 

  4. At the age of 6 he decided to join the police force

  5. All are mentioned 

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions given below

Patrol Cpl. John Pritchard always knew he’d one day get involved with law enforcement. That was after he got over his initial stint of wanting to be a bus driver. After that desire faded, at the age of 5, he settled on joining the police force. He stayed committed to those young dreams, having spent his whole life in some kind of law enforcement role — the longest being 35 years of service at the Mercer Island Police Department.

He began in 1984, at age 31. Last month, Pritchard retired at the age of 66 and the city said goodbye to one of its longest-serving employees. The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer. “I really appreciated John’s approach to law enforcement,” said police Chief Ed Holmes. “Not only did he have institutional knowledge … but he had direct positive connections with citizens and business owners, many of whom reached out to attend his retirement party.” Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens. He would speak of how things used to be. Fellow officers even called him “Pappy.”

Others at the police department agreed. “When I first started my career at MIPD, John was always eager to teach me new things and had a unique approach to police work,” corporal Todd Roggenkamp said. “His positive attitude and good work ethic were very appreciated. I will miss how he called everybody ‘Kid’ even if they were over 50.” During Pritchard’s career, he spent time in the military police and as a campus cop at the University of Washington. He began working narcotics at UW, but it wasn’t long before he moved on to a position at Mercer Island PD. At the department is where he got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations. 

Pritchard worked with the Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies including U.S. Customs, DEA, IRS, FBI, Secret Service and NW High-Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA). He worked on local, regional and international investigations and received numerous awards as a result. One of Pritchard’s final cases resulted in more than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds being distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department. 

Of all the investigative work, Pritchard found the most amusement from the “financial stuff,” he said. He worked to track dirty money (cash obtained unlawfully) that was hidden in insurance policies, cars, bank accounts, and investments. Sometimes organizations would ship money out of the country. After he found the money, he would take it away. “The mental challenge was the fun part,” Pritchard said. “There’s nothing better than to find some guy selling a lot of cocaine, find his money and take it away. He can sit there and play the bigshot until we come and take all the toys he bought with that drug money — houses, cars, boats, you name it.” 

Question:

What did one of his final cases result in?

  1. More than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase guns for the department. 

  2. More than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department. 

  3. More than $500,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department.

  4. He traced it back to a gun store theft in Olympia where about 187 guns were stolen. 

  5. Not mentioned in the passage 

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions given below

Patrol Cpl. John Pritchard always knew he’d one day get involved with law enforcement. That was after he got over his initial stint of wanting to be a bus driver. After that desire faded, at the age of 5, he settled on joining the police force. He stayed committed to those young dreams, having spent his whole life in some kind of law enforcement role — the longest being 35 years of service at the Mercer Island Police Department.

He began in 1984, at age 31. Last month, Pritchard retired at the age of 66 and the city said goodbye to one of its longest-serving employees. The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer. “I really appreciated John’s approach to law enforcement,” said police Chief Ed Holmes. “Not only did he have institutional knowledge … but he had direct positive connections with citizens and business owners, many of whom reached out to attend his retirement party.” Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens. He would speak of how things used to be. Fellow officers even called him “Pappy.”

Others at the police department agreed. “When I first started my career at MIPD, John was always eager to teach me new things and had a unique approach to police work,” corporal Todd Roggenkamp said. “His positive attitude and good work ethic were very appreciated. I will miss how he called everybody ‘Kid’ even if they were over 50.” During Pritchard’s career, he spent time in the military police and as a campus cop at the University of Washington. He began working narcotics at UW, but it wasn’t long before he moved on to a position at Mercer Island PD. At the department is where he got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations. 

Pritchard worked with the Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies including U.S. Customs, DEA, IRS, FBI, Secret Service and NW High-Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA). He worked on local, regional and international investigations and received numerous awards as a result. One of Pritchard’s final cases resulted in more than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds being distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department. 

Of all the investigative work, Pritchard found the most amusement from the “financial stuff,” he said. He worked to track dirty money (cash obtained unlawfully) that was hidden in insurance policies, cars, bank accounts, and investments. Sometimes organizations would ship money out of the country. After he found the money, he would take it away. “The mental challenge was the fun part,” Pritchard said. “There’s nothing better than to find some guy selling a lot of cocaine, find his money and take it away. He can sit there and play the bigshot until we come and take all the toys he bought with that drug money — houses, cars, boats, you name it.” 

Question:

What did the city do to commemorate the officer's send'off?

  1. The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer. 

  2. The city threw him a dinner cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

  3. The city threw him a lunch cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer. 

  4. The Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies came together to give him a medal of honor

  5. None of the above

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. The got in had occurred just before midnight.

2. The two robbers had an alibi for the time period of the run up

3. The would-be thieves had smashed the door lock in an attempt to turn in.

  1. Break in 

  2. Broke in 

  3. Got in

  4. Phase through 

  5. No improvement required 

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. The top and bottom come up if you pull hard enough.

2. My whole life had get apart at the seams.

3. After the first act, the play begins to get upon at the seams

  1. Come in 

  2. Come upon 

  3. Come apart 

  4. Come down 

  5. No improvement required 

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. I need to figure out how to fit the piano and the bookshelf in this room.

2. Please fill in the form with your name, address, and phone number.

3. The form must be filled out in capital letters.

  1. Fill upon 

  2. Filled in 

  3. Figure down 

  4. Figure into

  5. No improvement required

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. I finally got back into my novel and finished it.

2. We're going to freeze out here if you don't let us get on the bus.

3. I don't know when I am going to get round to writing the thank you cards.

  1. Get around to

  2. Got around to

  3. Get upon

  4. Got back onto 

  5. No improvement required

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. The story does, however, abound upon felicities; the physical descriptions of the planet, for example, are superb.

2. While other ions abound upon cytoplasm in their millimoles, liberal estimates of free Ca concentrations run around 0.1 micromolar, maximum.

3. Examples flutter up the professions, for example, the question of auditors and joint-stock companies, or solicitors and conveyancing. 

  1.  Abound in 

  2. Abound on 

  3. Abound 

  4. Above all

  5. No improvement required

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