Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Twelve persons in a family are sitting around two concentric circular tables. There are 5 married couples in the family and only married couples have children Those sitting in outer circle are facing towards the center while those sitting in inner circle are facing outside the center. A, B, C, D, E, F six persons are sitting around the inner circular table. P, Q, R, S, T, U six persons are sitting around the outer circular table.
Note- Any couple is neither sitting in the same circle nor facing each other. The persons of outer circular table are sitting exactly inline with the persons sitting around the inner circular table.
E's son is sitting immediate right of R's husband. F is a youngest male member of the family but not the son of Q. Only one person sits between C and F (either from the left or from the right). C is not an immediate neighbour of E.R's father is sitting in the inner circle and faces the immediate neighbour of R. R's son sits second to the right of R. Only two persons sit between R and T (either from the left or from the right). U is an immediate neighbour of P. U does not sits opposite to the immediate neighbours of the one who faces R. F does not face Q. B is not R's father. R's husband is sitting third to the right of R's father. Q is son of D. R's mother and R are sitting opposite to each other in the same circle. E is not an immediate neighbour of R's father. Q's daughter is sitting second to the right of Q.D's daughter in law is sitting second to the left of F. P is B's spouse. D is sitting immediate left of B. B is sitting second to the right of R's brother who is sitting in inner circle. R is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces B.
Question:
Who face D?
P
Q
R
S
T
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Twelve persons in a family are sitting around two concentric circular tables. There are 5 married couples in the family and only married couples have children Those sitting in outer circle are facing towards the center while those sitting in inner circle are facing outside the center. A, B, C, D, E, F six persons are sitting around the inner circular table. P, Q, R, S, T, U six persons are sitting around the outer circular table.
Note- Any couple is neither sitting in the same circle nor facing each other. The persons of outer circular table are sitting exactly inline with the persons sitting around the inner circular table.
E's son is sitting immediate right of R's husband. F is a youngest male member of the family but not the son of Q. Only one person sits between C and F (either from the left or from the right). C is not an immediate neighbour of E.R's father is sitting in the inner circle and faces the immediate neighbour of R. R's son sits second to the right of R. Only two persons sit between R and T (either from the left or from the right). U is an immediate neighbour of P. U does not sits opposite to the immediate neighbours of the one who faces R. F does not face Q. B is not R's father. R's husband is sitting third to the right of R's father. Q is son of D. R's mother and R are sitting opposite to each other in the same circle. E is not an immediate neighbour of R's father. Q's daughter is sitting second to the right of Q.D's daughter in law is sitting second to the left of F. P is B's spouse. D is sitting immediate left of B. B is sitting second to the right of R's brother who is sitting in inner circle. R is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces B.
Question:
Who is sitting exactly between R's son and R's mother when counted from right of R's son?
P
R
No one
S
T
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Twelve persons in a family are sitting around two concentric circular tables. There are 5 married couples in the family and only married couples have children Those sitting in outer circle are facing towards the center while those sitting in inner circle are facing outside the center. A, B, C, D, E, F six persons are sitting around the inner circular table. P, Q, R, S, T, U six persons are sitting around the outer circular table.
Note- Any couple is neither sitting in the same circle nor facing each other. The persons of outer circular table are sitting exactly inline with the persons sitting around the inner circular table.
E's son is sitting immediate right of R's husband. F is a youngest male member of the family but not the son of Q. Only one person sits between C and F (either from the left or from the right). C is not an immediate neighbour of E.R's father is sitting in the inner circle and faces the immediate neighbour of R. R's son sits second to the right of R. Only two persons sit between R and T (either from the left or from the right). U is an immediate neighbour of P. U does not sits opposite to the immediate neighbours of the one who faces R. F does not face Q. B is not R's father. R's husband is sitting third to the right of R's father. Q is son of D. R's mother and R are sitting opposite to each other in the same circle. E is not an immediate neighbour of R's father. Q's daughter is sitting second to the right of Q.D's daughter in law is sitting second to the left of F. P is B's spouse. D is sitting immediate left of B. B is sitting second to the right of R's brother who is sitting in inner circle. R is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces B.
Question:
What is the relation of D with respect to B?
Son
Father
Grandfather
Uncle
None of these
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Twelve persons in a family are sitting around two concentric circular tables. There are 5 married couples in the family and only married couples have children Those sitting in outer circle are facing towards the center while those sitting in inner circle are facing outside the center. A, B, C, D, E, F six persons are sitting around the inner circular table. P, Q, R, S, T, U six persons are sitting around the outer circular table.
Note- Any couple is neither sitting in the same circle nor facing each other. The persons of outer circular table are sitting exactly inline with the persons sitting around the inner circular table.
E's son is sitting immediate right of R's husband. F is a youngest male member of the family but not the son of Q. Only one person sits between C and F (either from the left or from the right). C is not an immediate neighbour of E.R's father is sitting in the inner circle and faces the immediate neighbour of R. R's son sits second to the right of R. Only two persons sit between R and T (either from the left or from the right). U is an immediate neighbour of P. U does not sits opposite to the immediate neighbours of the one who faces R. F does not face Q. B is not R's father. R's husband is sitting third to the right of R's father. Q is son of D. R's mother and R are sitting opposite to each other in the same circle. E is not an immediate neighbour of R's father. Q's daughter is sitting second to the right of Q.D's daughter in law is sitting second to the left of F. P is B's spouse. D is sitting immediate left of B. B is sitting second to the right of R's brother who is sitting in inner circle. R is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces B.
Question:
If T and R interchange their positions then who faces E?
T
R
U
P
None of these
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Twelve persons in a family are sitting around two concentric circular tables. There are 5 married couples in the family and only married couples have children Those sitting in outer circle are facing towards the center while those sitting in inner circle are facing outside the center. A, B, C, D, E, F six persons are sitting around the inner circular table. P, Q, R, S, T, U six persons are sitting around the outer circular table.
Note- Any couple is neither sitting in the same circle nor facing each other. The persons of outer circular table are sitting exactly inline with the persons sitting around the inner circular table.
E's son is sitting immediate right of R's husband. F is a youngest male member of the family but not the son of Q. Only one person sits between C and F (either from the left or from the right). C is not an immediate neighbour of E.R's father is sitting in the inner circle and faces the immediate neighbour of R. R's son sits second to the right of R. Only two persons sit between R and T (either from the left or from the right). U is an immediate neighbour of P. U does not sits opposite to the immediate neighbours of the one who faces R. F does not face Q. B is not R's father. R's husband is sitting third to the right of R's father. Q is son of D. R's mother and R are sitting opposite to each other in the same circle. E is not an immediate neighbour of R's father. Q's daughter is sitting second to the right of Q.D's daughter in law is sitting second to the left of F. P is B's spouse. D is sitting immediate left of B. B is sitting second to the right of R's brother who is sitting in inner circle. R is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces B.
Question:
Who is the oldest member of the family?
A
T
A and T
A or T
R
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following words are coded in this manner:
‘festival for women only’ is coded as ‘(p) 12D% 21H@ 4E@’
‘cindrella (q) to rescue’ is coded as ‘7B% 24I% 8G@ 9F%’
‘bugs ate all carrots’ is coded as ‘25D% (r) 24G% 26c@’
‘fight game play card’ is coded as ‘20D% (s) (t) 11D%’
Question:
Which of the folowing will replace the the blank '(p)'?
12D%
6C@
21C@
21C%
None of these
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following words are coded in this manner:
‘festival for women only’ is coded as ‘(p) 12D% 21H@ 4E@’
‘cindrella (q) to rescue’ is coded as ‘7B% 24I% 8G@ 9F%’
‘bugs ate all carrots’ is coded as ‘25D% (r) 24G% 26c@’
‘fight game play card’ is coded as ‘20D% (s) (t) 11D%’
Question:
Which of the following word will replace the blank '(q)'?
doing
shoutes
shouted
fight
women
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word, number and symbol arrangement device when given an input line of words, number and symbols rearrange them following a particular pattern on each step. The following of input and rearrangement.
INPUT: OTHER BUILD HOME WITH STRONG MUSIC
STEP I: QVJGT DWKNF JQOG YKVJ UVTQPI OWUKE
STEP II: DWKNF JQOG OWUKE QVJGT UVTQPI YKVJ
STEP III: GZNQI MTRJ RZXNH TYMJW XYWTSL BNYM
STEP IV: GZIQN MTRJ RZHNX TYMJW XYWLST BNYM
STEP V: ATCKH GNLD LTBHR NSGDQ RSQFMN VHSG
And step V is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the logic followed on the above steps. Find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
INPUT: NONE LINK USED SENT MORE TABLE
Question:
What word is to the 4th right of the word which is 6th from right in step IV?
RTWJ
QPSN
YFJQG
XJSY
SJST
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word, number and symbol arrangement device when given an input line of words, number and symbols rearrange them following a particular pattern on each step. The following of input and rearrangement.
INPUT: OTHER BUILD HOME WITH STRONG MUSIC
STEP I: QVJGT DWKNF JQOG YKVJ UVTQPI OWUKE
STEP II: DWKNF JQOG OWUKE QVJGT UVTQPI YKVJ
STEP III: GZNQI MTRJ RZXNH TYMJW XYWTSL BNYM
STEP IV: GZIQN MTRJ RZHNX TYMJW XYWLST BNYM
STEP V: ATCKH GNLD LTBHR NSGDQ RSQFMN VHSG
And step V is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the logic followed on the above steps. Find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
INPUT: NONE LINK USED SENT MORE TABLE
Question:
What word is to the immediate left of the word which is 5th from the left end of step III?
STSJ
XJSY
ZXJI
RTWJ
QNSP
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word, number and symbol arrangement device when given an input line of words, number and symbols rearrange them following a particular pattern on each step. The following of input and rearrangement.
INPUT: OTHER BUILD HOME WITH STRONG MUSIC
STEP I: QVJGT DWKNF JQOG YKVJ UVTQPI OWUKE
STEP II: DWKNF JQOG OWUKE QVJGT UVTQPI YKVJ
STEP III: GZNQI MTRJ RZXNH TYMJW XYWTSL BNYM
STEP IV: GZIQN MTRJ RZHNX TYMJW XYWLST BNYM
STEP V: ATCKH GNLD LTBHR NSGDQ RSQFMN VHSG
And step V is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the logic followed on the above steps. Find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
INPUT: NONE LINK USED SENT MORE TABLE
Question:
In which step RDMS is 4th form left end for the given input?
Step V
Step VI
Step VII
Step IV
Step VIII
Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word, number and symbol arrangement device when given an input line of words, number and symbols rearrange them following a particular pattern on each step. The following of input and rearrangement.
INPUT: OTHER BUILD HOME WITH STRONG MUSIC
STEP I: QVJGT DWKNF JQOG YKVJ UVTQPI OWUKE
STEP II: DWKNF JQOG OWUKE QVJGT UVTQPI YKVJ
STEP III: GZNQI MTRJ RZXNH TYMJW XYWTSL BNYM
STEP IV: GZIQN MTRJ RZHNX TYMJW XYWLST BNYM
STEP V: ATCKH GNLD LTBHR NSGDQ RSQFMN VHSG
And step V is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the logic followed on the above steps. Find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
INPUT: NONE LINK USED SENT MORE TABLE
Question:
What will be the next step for the below input, if the below input is the step IV for certain input?
GCIOD YILIR GSNIG RUEMN HESIN
BXDJ TDGDM BNIBV MPZHI CZNDI
AWXIC SCFCL AMUAH LOHGY BYHCM
GCDOI YILIR GSGIN RUEMN HENIS
AWCIX SCFCL AMHCA LOYGH BYMCH
None of the above
Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, ?, ×, β and Ω are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘X ? Y’ means ‘X is neither greater than nor equal to Y’.
‘X × Y’ means ‘X is neither smaller than nor greater than Y’.
‘X β Y’ means ‘X is not greater than Y’.
‘X Ω Y’ means ‘X is greater than Y’.
‘X @ Y’ means ‘X is either greater than or equal to Y’. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?
Question:
Statement:
D ? M β P × K Ω F ? T; M × G
Conclusions:
I. K @ G
II. T ? P
III. F β M
Only conclusion I is true
Both conclusion I and II are true
Either II or III is true
All I, II and III are true
Both II and III are true
Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, ?, ×, β and Ω are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘X ? Y’ means ‘X is neither greater than nor equal to Y’.
‘X × Y’ means ‘X is neither smaller than nor greater than Y’.
‘X β Y’ means ‘X is not greater than Y’.
‘X Ω Y’ means ‘X is greater than Y’.
‘X @ Y’ means ‘X is either greater than or equal to Y’. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?
Question:
Statement:
T @ I × H Ω U ? P β V ? L; H @ L
Conclusions:
I. T Ω L
II. V β T
III. I @ L
Only II conclusion is true
Both conclusion I and II are true
Either conclusion II or conclusion III is true
Only III conclusion is true
Both conclusion I and III are true
Directions: Question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Six people – Megha, Suhas, Rakesh, Akshay, Safia and Nidhi are standing in a line according to their height. But not necessarily in the same order. Who is the second tallest person?
Statement I: Megha is taller than just two person. Rakesh is taller than Nidhi and Safia but he is not the tallest. Suhas is the shorter than just two person.
Statement II: Nidhi is the second shortest person. Megha is shorter than three persons. Suhas is shorter than Akshay and Rakesh. Safia is the shortest.
The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
The data in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question
Direction: In each of the following questions, a question followed by three statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and given answer. .
There are six letters W, I, M, D, Y and A. ‘MIDWAY’ is the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?
I. A is placed fourth to the right of M. D is not placed immediately next to either M or A.
II. Y is placed immediately next (either left or right) to A. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to D.
III. Both I and W are placed immediately next to D. The word does not begin with Y. M is not placed immediately next to W.
Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the statement III are not required to answer the question.
Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while statement II are not required to answer the question.
Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while statement I are not required to answer the question.
Either statement I alone or statement II alone or statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question. 5.
All statement I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
Directions: Question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Seven friends - S, T, R, F, G, J and V are living on different floors of a seven storey building having seven floors numbered one to seven (The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 7). Who is staying immediately below G’s floor?
Statement I: R lives on one of the odd numbered floors above floor 3. And only two people live between the R and S.
Statement II: Only one person lives between S and G, who is staying below T and above S. T does not stay on the top floor.
Statement III: V stays above F but below J.
The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, and the data in statement I or III is not required to answer the question.
The data in either statement I, II or III are sufficient to answer the question.
The data in statement II and III is sufficient to answer the question, and the data in statement I is not required to answer the question.
The data in all three statements together is needed to answer the question.
The data in all the statements, even together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Directions: In the following question, a given question is followed by information in three statements. You have to decide the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. There are seven persons, Kabir, Roy, Manav, Adi, Babu, Malik, and Boman are sitting in a row facing north direction. Each person owns a different brand of car which are Kia, Tata, Maruti, Toyota, Hyundai. BMW, and Mahindra but not necessarily in the same order. The one who owns Toyota sits fourth to the left of Adi, who owns Tata and either of them sits at the extreme end of the row. Roy owns Mahindra. The one who owns Kia sits third to the left of the one who owns BMW, who neither sits adjacent to the one who owns Toyota nor adjacent to Adi. Babu neither owns Toyota nor Kia, sits third to the left of Roy.
Who sits at the immediate right of Kabir?
Statement I: Two persons sit between the one who owns Maruti and Manav. Three persons sit between Boman and the one who owns Hyundai.
Statement II: The one who owns Hyundai sits second to the left of Manav. The one who owns Maruti sits at the immediate right of Boman.
Statement III: Three persons sit between Malik and Kabir, who doesn't own Maruti. Boman and the one who owns Maruti sit together.
The data in any two statements are sufficient to answer the question.
The data in statement III is sufficient to answer the question, and the data in statement I and II is not required to answer the question.
The data in either statement I, II or III are sufficient to answer the question.
The data in statement II and III is sufficient to answer the question, and the data in statement I is not required to answer the question.
The data in all the statements, even together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
A family has 9 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H & I and they are sitting in a row facing north. There are 2 couples in the family. H who has 2 sons and 1 daughter is sitting third to the right of C. A is sitting immediate left of his wife C. Members at both the extreme ends are children of B. B is sitting immediate right of his wife H. The daughters G and I are sitting with their respective fathers. D who is brother-in-law of A is sitting in the middle of the row and second to the right of A. E is sitting immediate right of his maternal uncle D. I who is granddaughter of H is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. I is daughter of C.
Question:
Who is sitting second to the left of G?
A
B
H
I
None of these
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
A family has 9 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H & I and they are sitting in a row facing north. There are 2 couples in the family. H who has 2 sons and 1 daughter is sitting third to the right of C. A is sitting immediate left of his wife C. Members at both the extreme ends are children of B. B is sitting immediate right of his wife H. The daughters G and I are sitting with their respective fathers. D who is brother-in-law of A is sitting in the middle of the row and second to the right of A. E is sitting immediate right of his maternal uncle D. I who is granddaughter of H is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. I is daughter of C.
Question:
How is E related to F?
Niece
Son
Daughter
Nephew
Cannot be determined
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
A family has 9 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H & I and they are sitting in a row facing north. There are 2 couples in the family. H who has 2 sons and 1 daughter is sitting third to the right of C. A is sitting immediate left of his wife C. Members at both the extreme ends are children of B. B is sitting immediate right of his wife H. The daughters G and I are sitting with their respective fathers. D who is brother-in-law of A is sitting in the middle of the row and second to the right of A. E is sitting immediate right of his maternal uncle D. I who is granddaughter of H is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. I is daughter of C.
Question:
Who is sitting third to the right of I’s mother?
H
G
B
E
Can’t be determined
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
A family has 9 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H & I and they are sitting in a row facing north. There are 2 couples in the family. H who has 2 sons and 1 daughter is sitting third to the right of C. A is sitting immediate left of his wife C. Members at both the extreme ends are children of B. B is sitting immediate right of his wife H. The daughters G and I are sitting with their respective fathers. D who is brother-in-law of A is sitting in the middle of the row and second to the right of A. E is sitting immediate right of his maternal uncle D. I who is granddaughter of H is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. I is daughter of C.
Question:
What is the position of A’s brother with respect to E’s mother?
Fourth to the left
Second to the left
Third to the right
Third to the left
Cannot be determined
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
A family has 9 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H & I and they are sitting in a row facing north. There are 2 couples in the family. H who has 2 sons and 1 daughter is sitting third to the right of C. A is sitting immediate left of his wife C. Members at both the extreme ends are children of B. B is sitting immediate right of his wife H. The daughters G and I are sitting with their respective fathers. D who is brother-in-law of A is sitting in the middle of the row and second to the right of A. E is sitting immediate right of his maternal uncle D. I who is granddaughter of H is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. I is daughter of C.
Question:
If D is replaced with his sister then what will be the position of H with respect to her daughter-in-law?
Third to the left
Second to the right
Third to the right
Fourth to the left
Cannot be determined.
Directions: A statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: This benchmark is increasingly applied in choosing who will be hired and who will not, who will be let go, and who retained, who passed over, and who promoted. Inference
: I.The benchmark is an integral part of the employee management policy of an organization.
II. Those who are not hired do not make it to the benchmark.
Only I follows
Only II follows.
Either I or II follows.
Neither I nor II follows.
Both I and II follow.
Directions : Study the following information and answer the questions given below. Distance and direction between various points is shown in a coded form as follows
A # B (58m) – A is 46m west of B.
A & B (89m) – A is 77m south of B.
A @ B (110m) – A is 98m north of B.
A % B (52m) – A is 40m east of B.
N * AB – N is the mid point of line AB.
L @ Z (28m), S # K (20m), R % H (17m), Q # Z (26m), T # M (21m), Q & H (22m), S & M (27m), T @ R (28m)
Question:
Which of the following statement is sufficient to find shortest distance between points M and J? I. J & P (19m), P % N (22m), N @ O (25m) II. P & Q (27m), N % P (20m), O @ N (22m), O # J (18m)
Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
Data given in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Directions : Study the following information and answer the questions given below. Distance and direction between various points is shown in a coded form as follows
A # B (58m) – A is 46m west of B.
A & B (89m) – A is 77m south of B.
A @ B (110m) – A is 98m north of B.
A % B (52m) – A is 40m east of B.
N * AB – N is the mid point of line AB.
L @ Z (28m), S # K (20m), R % H (17m), Q # Z (26m), T # M (21m), Q & H (22m), S & M (27m), T @ R (28m)
Question:
Which of the following statement is sufficient to prove B * RT?
I. F # H (17m), F & E (28m), D % E (17m)
II. D @ C (20m), B % C (17m)
Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
Data given in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different cities Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Ernakulam, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar, not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different weight –89, 50, 55,71, 49, 66,92 and 56 (in Kg) not necessarily in the same order. A has a weight which is multiple of 11 and 5 and lives in Bhubaneshwar. D lives in Bangalore but his weight is not 89Kg or 71Kg. The one who lives in Hyderabad has a weight 56Kg. G has a weight of 49Kg and does not live in Mumbai or Chennai. E has weight of 71Kg and lives in Ahmedabad or Ernakulam. F lives in Chennai but his weight is not 92Kg. C lives in Mumbai. The sum of weights of H and C is 181Kg. Neither G nor H lives in Ernakulam. G does not live in Jaipur. The sum of weights of D and H is 142Kg
Further, a code is assigned to each person depending on the city in which they live and their weight according to the following conditions:
1. If the name of the city starts with vowel and the weight is a prime number then the code will be 5th succeeding letter of the person’s name as per English Alphabetical Series.
2. If the name of the city starts with a vowel and the weight is a composite number then the code will be 3rd preceding letter of the person’s name as per the English Alphabetical Series.
3. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a prime number then the code will be sum of digits of the person’s weight.
4. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a composite number then the code will be difference of digits of the person’s weight.
Question:
What is the sum of codes of C and H and weight of D ?
66
74
50
64
19
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different cities Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Ernakulam, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar, not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different weight –89, 50, 55,71, 49, 66,92 and 56 (in Kg) not necessarily in the same order. A has a weight which is multiple of 11 and 5 and lives in Bhubaneshwar. D lives in Bangalore but his weight is not 89Kg or 71Kg. The one who lives in Hyderabad has a weight 56Kg. G has a weight of 49Kg and does not live in Mumbai or Chennai. E has weight of 71Kg and lives in Ahmedabad or Ernakulam. F lives in Chennai but his weight is not 92Kg. C lives in Mumbai. The sum of weights of H and C is 181Kg. Neither G nor H lives in Ernakulam. G does not live in Jaipur. The sum of weights of D and H is 142Kg
Further, a code is assigned to each person depending on the city in which they live and their weight according to the following conditions:
1. If the name of the city starts with vowel and the weight is a prime number then the code will be 5th succeeding letter of the person’s name as per English Alphabetical Series.
2. If the name of the city starts with a vowel and the weight is a composite number then the code will be 3rd preceding letter of the person’s name as per the English Alphabetical Series.
3. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a prime number then the code will be sum of digits of the person’s weight.
4. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a composite number then the code will be difference of digits of the person’s weight.
Question:
What is the code for the one who lives in Ernakulam?
5
D
1
17
J
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different cities Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Ernakulam, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar, not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different weight –89, 50, 55,71, 49, 66,92 and 56 (in Kg) not necessarily in the same order. A has a weight which is multiple of 11 and 5 and lives in Bhubaneshwar. D lives in Bangalore but his weight is not 89Kg or 71Kg. The one who lives in Hyderabad has a weight 56Kg. G has a weight of 49Kg and does not live in Mumbai or Chennai. E has weight of 71Kg and lives in Ahmedabad or Ernakulam. F lives in Chennai but his weight is not 92Kg. C lives in Mumbai. The sum of weights of H and C is 181Kg. Neither G nor H lives in Ernakulam. G does not live in Jaipur. The sum of weights of D and H is 142Kg
Further, a code is assigned to each person depending on the city in which they live and their weight according to the following conditions:
1. If the name of the city starts with vowel and the weight is a prime number then the code will be 5th succeeding letter of the person’s name as per English Alphabetical Series.
2. If the name of the city starts with a vowel and the weight is a composite number then the code will be 3rd preceding letter of the person’s name as per the English Alphabetical Series.
3. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a prime number then the code will be sum of digits of the person’s weight.
4. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a composite number then the code will be difference of digits of the person’s weight.
Question:
Who lives in Ahmedabad?
G
A
F
C
D
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different cities Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Ernakulam, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar, not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different weight –89, 50, 55,71, 49, 66,92 and 56 (in Kg) not necessarily in the same order. A has a weight which is multiple of 11 and 5 and lives in Bhubaneshwar. D lives in Bangalore but his weight is not 89Kg or 71Kg. The one who lives in Hyderabad has a weight 56Kg. G has a weight of 49Kg and does not live in Mumbai or Chennai. E has weight of 71Kg and lives in Ahmedabad or Ernakulam. F lives in Chennai but his weight is not 92Kg. C lives in Mumbai. The sum of weights of H and C is 181Kg. Neither G nor H lives in Ernakulam. G does not live in Jaipur. The sum of weights of D and H is 142Kg
Further, a code is assigned to each person depending on the city in which they live and their weight according to the following conditions:
1. If the name of the city starts with vowel and the weight is a prime number then the code will be 5th succeeding letter of the person’s name as per English Alphabetical Series.
2. If the name of the city starts with a vowel and the weight is a composite number then the code will be 3rd preceding letter of the person’s name as per the English Alphabetical Series.
3. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a prime number then the code will be sum of digits of the person’s weight.
4. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a composite number then the code will be difference of digits of the person’s weight.
Question:
What is the code for H?
1
17
5
7
D
Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in different cities Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Ernakulam, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar, not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different weight –89, 50, 55,71, 49, 66,92 and 56 (in Kg) not necessarily in the same order. A has a weight which is multiple of 11 and 5 and lives in Bhubaneshwar. D lives in Bangalore but his weight is not 89Kg or 71Kg. The one who lives in Hyderabad has a weight 56Kg. G has a weight of 49Kg and does not live in Mumbai or Chennai. E has weight of 71Kg and lives in Ahmedabad or Ernakulam. F lives in Chennai but his weight is not 92Kg. C lives in Mumbai. The sum of weights of H and C is 181Kg. Neither G nor H lives in Ernakulam. G does not live in Jaipur. The sum of weights of D and H is 142Kg
Further, a code is assigned to each person depending on the city in which they live and their weight according to the following conditions:
1. If the name of the city starts with vowel and the weight is a prime number then the code will be 5th succeeding letter of the person’s name as per English Alphabetical Series.
2. If the name of the city starts with a vowel and the weight is a composite number then the code will be 3rd preceding letter of the person’s name as per the English Alphabetical Series.
3. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a prime number then the code will be sum of digits of the person’s weight.
4. If the name of the city starts with consonant and the weight is a composite number then the code will be difference of digits of the person’s weight.
Question:
How many persons have the same code?
1
2
3
4
5
Direction: In following question two conclusions have been given followed by 5 sets of possible Statements. You have to take the given Conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide for the given Conclusions logically follows from the which of the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Conclusions:
I. All Roots can not be Grass.
II. Some Leaves being Grass is a possibility.
Statements:
I. Some Roots are Grass. All Trees are Leaves. Some Leaves are Roots.
II. Only a few Leaves are Roots. Some Roots are Grass. All Trees are Leaves.
III. Only a few Leaves are Roots. Some Roots are Grass. Some Trees are Leaves.
IV. Only a few Roots are Grass. All Trees are Leaves. Some Leaves are Roots.
V. Only a few Roots are Grass. Some Trees are Leaves. Some Leaves are Roots.
Only statement II
Only statement V
Only statement IV
Only statement III
Only statement I
Direction: In following question two conclusions have been given followed by 5 sets of possible Statements. You have to take the given Conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide for the given Conclusions logically follows from the which of the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Conclusions:
I. At least some goat being bird is a possibility
. II.Some swans are goat.
Statements:
I. All goats are Swans. All swans are crows. No goat is a bird
. II. All goats are Swans. All Swans are crows. No crow is a bird.
III. Some goats are Swans. Some goats are crows. No goat is a bird.
IV. Some goats are Swans. All Swans are crows. No goat is a bird.
V. All goats are Swans. Some goats are crows. No crow is a bird
Only statement II
Only statement V
Only statement IV
Only statement III
Only statement I
Directions: Read the passage given below and select the assumption(s) that hold true based on the facts in the passage.
Cotton acreage in India during the current year has fallen by 10% as cotton growers have moved on the cultivation of other cash crops. This is the result of the cotton glut in world markets post-September 11 and the consequent slowdown in the world economy. But this scenario brought with it benefits to one segment of the industry - yarn manufacturers - as they get higher prices for their produce. Some yarn manufacturers had stocked up low priced cotton last year. The combined effect of all this is evident in the rise in net profits and net margins of yarn manufacturers.
Assumption: The farmers will again grow cotton next year due to the increased price of cotton yarn.
If the assumption is definitely true
If the assumption is probably true
If the assumption is probably false
If the assumption is definitely false
If the data are inadequate
Directions: In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action regarding the problem, policy, etc. Based on the information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Caitlin Bosche is the Human Resource Management Head at Company X. She has received the monthly reports from all the departments in the compartment. While going through the reports, it comes to her notice that the production in Department G and Department K has fallen by 100,000 units and 150,000 units respectively. On further investigation, she concludes that the machineries in department G are breaking down more often because of being overused. While the machinery in Department K is being underutilized.
Course of Actions:
I. Caitlin sends an email to the Operations Manager directing him to buy new machinery for Department G with enough capacity to bear the workload.
II. Caitlin sends an email to the Operation Manager informing him to transfer 10,000 workers from Department G to Department K.
Only I follows.
Only Il follows.
Either I or II follows.
Neither I nor II follows.
Both I and II follow.
Directions: One statement is given followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.
Statement:
80% of the employees of Edulab Ltd. earn more than Rs. 5000 per month. 70% of employees of Edulab Ltd. work as supervisors.
Conclusions:
I. All supervisors earn more than Rs.5000 per month.
II. Less than 100% of supervisors earn more than Rs.5000 per month.
Only Conclusion I follows.
Only Conclusion II follows
Both the Conclusions I and II follow.
Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
Either Conclusion I or II follows.
Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Statement: All engineering students, except for Mechanical, work on software rather than hardware.
Which of the following can be most properly inferred from the statement above?
Mechanical engineering students work only on hardware.
Only mechanical engineering students work on software.
If an engineering student works on software, he is not a mechanical engineer.
Not all engineering students work on software.
An engineering student works on hardware, as long as he is not a mechanical engineer.
Directions: In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those, which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those, which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a Strong argument is and which a weak argument is.
Statement:
Should animals be killed in the name of the laboratory experiments?
Arguments:
I. Yes, they are available in abundance.
II. No, we have to support non-violence on every step of our lives.
If only argument I is strong
If only argument II is strong.
If either I or II is strong.
If neither I nor II is strong.
If both I and II are strong.
Directions: Read the following passage and select the correct answer.
Alka had lost her job during the lockdown and started a new business to support herself. She was providing tiffin service to the people who had depended on restaurants for daily food and were facing a problem due to the lockdown. Because of the apt timing and identification of need, her business had hit the ground running. It hadn't even required a lot of investment and she used her savings from the job to start it so she had no debt hanging on her. The business flourished for over an year but then as the lockdown opened, she saw a drastic reduce in demand for her tiffins. Alka surveyed her customers and found out that the local restaurants were offering a similar meal at a lower cost than her.
Which of the following actions would help Alka improve her business?
Reduce the cost of her tiffins to get more customers, even if it means a little loss at the beginning.
Advertise to increase customer reach and extend her boundaries.
Come up with subscription and discount offers to allure customers without taking a significant loss.
Keep the business alive by reducing the prices and get back to her job thereby averting loss.
Retain the cost on her tiffins and try to change the class of target customers.
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There are 15 boxes numbered from 2 to 16 arranged one above another in ascending order from top to bottom. The letters of the word "MATE" are written in the same order as given in word against the boxes which are multiple of 3, starting from 3. Further arrangement of letters P, Q, R, S, U, V and symbols @, #, $, % is as given below.
V is written below R but not below box numbered 12. There is a gap of 2 boxes between the letter the U and symbol %. Symbols P and Q are written in alphabetical order against the multiples of 7 starting from 7. Symbols # and @ are written immediate to each other. Vowels are written immediate to the third letter of the word. There is a gap of 4 boxes between the symbols # and $. S is written against the bottommost box.
Question:
Which letter or symbol is written against the box which is 4 places away from the bottommost box?
%
#
E
R
T
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There are 15 boxes numbered from 2 to 16 arranged one above another in ascending order from top to bottom. The letters of the word "MATE" are written in the same order as given in word against the boxes which are multiple of 3, starting from 3. Further arrangement of letters P, Q, R, S, U, V and symbols @, #, $, % is as given below.
V is written below R but not below box numbered 12. There is a gap of 2 boxes between the letter the U and symbol %. Symbols P and Q are written in alphabetical order against the multiples of 7 starting from 7. Symbols # and @ are written immediate to each other. Vowels are written immediate to the third letter of the word. There is a gap of 4 boxes between the symbols # and $. S is written against the bottommost box.
Question:
If a and b are box numbers of the letters M and P respectively, then find the value of (a + b)2
99
101
10
100
52
Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different months viz. March, May, August and October in 8 different cities viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W but not necessarily in that order. They have their birthdays either on 14th or 26th of the given months. The one born in P has birthday just before the one born in Q. Number of people born before the one born in R is same as number of persons born after the one born in V. E and H are born in same month. One person is born in between the one born in V and other born in S. There is no person born between the one born in V and the person F. Neither E nor D is born in R and V. Three persons are born between the one born in T and the person C such that C is born before the one born in T. B is born in May and there are two people born between B and the one born in R. The one born in R does not have birthday in the month of October. There are three persons born between F and G. A is born immediately before the one born in Q. More than two people are born before F. D is not the one born in W.
Question:
What is the name of city where A is born?
U
Q
P
W
None of these
Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different months viz. March, May, August and October in 8 different cities viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W but not necessarily in that order. They have their birthdays either on 14th or 26th of the given months. The one born in P has birthday just before the one born in Q. Number of people born before the one born in R is same as number of persons born after the one born in V. E and H are born in same month. One person is born in between the one born in V and other born in S. There is no person born between the one born in V and the person F. Neither E nor D is born in R and V. Three persons are born between the one born in T and the person C such that C is born before the one born in T. B is born in May and there are two people born between B and the one born in R. The one born in R does not have birthday in the month of October. There are three persons born between F and G. A is born immediately before the one born in Q. More than two people are born before F. D is not the one born in W.
Question:
Whose birthdays are in the month of October?
D and A
F and G
E and H
A and G
None of these
Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different months viz. March, May, August and October in 8 different cities viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W but not necessarily in that order. They have their birthdays either on 14th or 26th of the given months. The one born in P has birthday just before the one born in Q. Number of people born before the one born in R is same as number of persons born after the one born in V. E and H are born in same month. One person is born in between the one born in V and other born in S. There is no person born between the one born in V and the person F. Neither E nor D is born in R and V. Three persons are born between the one born in T and the person C such that C is born before the one born in T. B is born in May and there are two people born between B and the one born in R. The one born in R does not have birthday in the month of October. There are three persons born between F and G. A is born immediately before the one born in Q. More than two people are born before F. D is not the one born in W.
Question:
Which person has birthday immediately before the one who is born in V?
C
D
A
F
None of these
Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different months viz. March, May, August and October in 8 different cities viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W but not necessarily in that order. They have their birthdays either on 14th or 26th of the given months. The one born in P has birthday just before the one born in Q. Number of people born before the one born in R is same as number of persons born after the one born in V. E and H are born in same month. One person is born in between the one born in V and other born in S. There is no person born between the one born in V and the person F. Neither E nor D is born in R and V. Three persons are born between the one born in T and the person C such that C is born before the one born in T. B is born in May and there are two people born between B and the one born in R. The one born in R does not have birthday in the month of October. There are three persons born between F and G. A is born immediately before the one born in Q. More than two people are born before F. D is not the one born in W.
Question:
Which person’s birthday is between the one born in W and the person H?
E
B
A
D
None of these
Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different months viz. March, May, August and October in 8 different cities viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W but not necessarily in that order. They have their birthdays either on 14th or 26th of the given months. The one born in P has birthday just before the one born in Q. Number of people born before the one born in R is same as number of persons born after the one born in V. E and H are born in same month. One person is born in between the one born in V and other born in S. There is no person born between the one born in V and the person F. Neither E nor D is born in R and V. Three persons are born between the one born in T and the person C such that C is born before the one born in T. B is born in May and there are two people born between B and the one born in R. The one born in R does not have birthday in the month of October. There are three persons born between F and G. A is born immediately before the one born in Q. More than two people are born before F. D is not the one born in W.
Question:
Whose birthday comes on 26th of October and where is the person born?
H, born in R
A, born in P
G, born in U
G, born in Q
None of these
Given below the data about three employees of a call center named ZINTOCA. In the given table, data about calls received by them, calls selected for further lead and calls finally received is given:
A B C
Initial calls(% out of total calls) 40% 30% 30%
Lead calls (% out of initial calls) 80% x% 88%
Final received calls(% out of lead calls) 90% 80% y%
Question:
Total number of initial calls in the company is 24000 and total number of calls not received by company C is 4464 less than the total number of calls received by company A. Find the value of y
70
75
85
90
None of the above
Given below the data about three employees of a call center named ZINTOCA. In the given table, data about calls received by them, calls selected for further lead and calls finally received is given:
A B C
Initial calls(% out of total calls) 40% 30% 30%
Lead calls (% out of initial calls) 80% x% 88%
Final received calls(% out of lead calls) 90% 80% y%
Question:
If the total number of calls not received by A and received by B is 224 and 432 respectively. Find the value of x.
80
75
90
85
None of the above
Given below the data about three employees of a call center named ZINTOCA. In the given table, data about calls received by them, calls selected for further lead and calls finally received is given:
A B C
Initial calls(% out of total calls) 40% 30% 30%
Lead calls (% out of initial calls) 80% x% 88%
Final received calls(% out of lead calls) 90% 80% y%
Question:
Find the ratio of number of lead calls made by A to the number of initial calls by B.
15 : 13
16 : 13
16 : 15
17 : 13
None of the above
A person who was watching 4 web series on a binge. Each web series has some episodes (not equal necessarily). Time length of each episode of these web series is 20 minutes. Given bar graph shows percentage distribution of number of episodes of each web series out of total number of episodes of all 4 web series and percentage of watched contents of given series by person.
Note:
(1) Total number of episodes of all 4 web series is x.
(2) Average of total watched content of series A and series D by given person is x – 192.
(3) Daily watch time for this person is 35 minutes, 25 minutes, 18 minutes, 21 minutes for web series A, B, C, D respectively.
(4) Everyday, the person watches each show in numerical order. For example, person watches 1st episode of web series A, then, he will start 2nd episode of web series A on same day only after watching 1st episode of each web series or complete his quota of watch time of other web series, whichever is earlier. Same applies for other web series as well.
Question:
Find the number of complete episodes watched by person in first 2 days?
9
8
7
10
None of the above
A person who was watching 4 web series on a binge. Each web series has some episodes (not equal necessarily). Time length of each episode of these web series is 20 minutes. Given bar graph shows percentage distribution of number of episodes of each web series out of total number of episodes of all 4 web series and percentage of watched contents of given series by person.
Note:
(1) Total number of episodes of all 4 web series is x.
(2) Average of total watched content of series A and series D by given person is x – 192.
(3) Daily watch time for this person is 35 minutes, 25 minutes, 18 minutes, 21 minutes for web series A, B, C, D respectively.
(4) Everyday, the person watches each show in numerical order. For example, person watches 1st episode of web series A, then, he will start 2nd episode of web series A on same day only after watching 1st episode of each web series or complete his quota of watch time of other web series, whichever is earlier. Same applies for other web series as well.
Question:
Which episodes of web series D are being watched by person on day 3?
2, 3
3, 4
4, 5
5, 6
Can not be determined
A person who was watching 4 web series on a binge. Each web series has some episodes (not equal necessarily). Time length of each episode of these web series is 20 minutes. Given bar graph shows percentage distribution of number of episodes of each web series out of total number of episodes of all 4 web series and percentage of watched contents of given series by person.
Note:
(1) Total number of episodes of all 4 web series is x.
(2) Average of total watched content of series A and series D by given person is x – 192.
(3) Daily watch time for this person is 35 minutes, 25 minutes, 18 minutes, 21 minutes for web series A, B, C, D respectively.
(4) Everyday, the person watches each show in numerical order. For example, person watches 1st episode of web series A, then, he will start 2nd episode of web series A on same day only after watching 1st episode of each web series or complete his quota of watch time of other web series, whichever is earlier. Same applies for other web series as well.
Question:
Find the difference between number of days taken by person for watching 25 episodes of web series B and 20 episodes of web series C?
3
4
2
6
None of the above
A person who was watching 4 web series on a binge. Each web series has some episodes (not equal necessarily). Time length of each episode of these web series is 20 minutes. Given bar graph shows percentage distribution of number of episodes of each web series out of total number of episodes of all 4 web series and percentage of watched contents of given series by person.
Note:
(1) Total number of episodes of all 4 web series is x.
(2) Average of total watched content of series A and series D by given person is x – 192.
(3) Daily watch time for this person is 35 minutes, 25 minutes, 18 minutes, 21 minutes for web series A, B, C, D respectively.
(4) Everyday, the person watches each show in numerical order. For example, person watches 1st episode of web series A, then, he will start 2nd episode of web series A on same day only after watching 1st episode of each web series or complete his quota of watch time of other web series, whichever is earlier. Same applies for other web series as well.
Question:
In how many days, person completes his quota of watching web series A?
4
5
6
9
None of the above
Directions: Each question below contains a statement followed by two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.
Quantity I: A boat running downstream covers a distance of 20 km in 4 hrs, while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 5 hrs. Speed of boat in still water (in kmph).
Quantity II. A boat can cover a distance of 48 km in 3 hrs in still water. If speed of current is 4 kmph, then the difference between time of boat to cover the same distance upstream (in hrs).
QI > QII
QI < QII
QI ≤ QII
QI ≥ QII
Cannot be determined
If p + q + r = 15.
Quantity I: Maximum value of pqr, if p, q, r are positive integers.
Quantity II: Maximum value of pqr, if p, q, r ≥ -10.
QI > QII
QI < QII
QI ≤ QII
QI ≥ QII
Cannot be determined
If (4x – 3a)/x = 2/3
Quantity I: Value of x.
Quantity II: Value of a.
QI > QII 2
. QI < QII
QI ≤ QII
QI ≥ QII
Cannot be determined
Each of the question is followed by two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data is given in statements are sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between possible answers. Find the cost price of watch
(I) If there is a markup of Rs. 360 and 10% discount is given, then, profit is 8%.
(II) If watch is sold on profit of 12%, then, difference between the sale price and cost price is equal to Rs. 216.
Statement I are sufficient
Statement II are sufficient
Both Statement I and II are sufficient
Either statement I or II are sufficient
None of the above
What is the area of rectangle ABCD?
(I) Perimeter of rectangle is 4.5 times of its breadth.
(II) Difference between squares of adjacent pair of sides of rectangle ABCD is 5.4 times of its breadth.
Statements I are sufficient
Statements II are sufficient
Both statements I and statement II are sufficient
Either statement I or statement II are sufficient
None of the above
In how many days, 10 women complete a work ?
(I) 4 men and 6 women can complete the same work in 20 days.
(II) Number of days taken by 2 men to complete a work is same as number of days taken by 3 women for same work.
Statements I are sufficient
Statements II are sufficient
Both statements I and II are sufficient
Either statements I or statement II are sufficient
None of the above
a), (b), 102, 104, 107, 113, 128, 173
Note: calculate values of (a) and (b), then, answer the questions those follow:
Double the value of (a), let it be x. Then, find the difference between x and 4th term of series given
98
88
164
102
None of the above
From (b), a new series started. The 2nd term of series is (b + 22 ), 3rd term of series is (b + 33 ), 4th term of series is (b + 44 ) and so on. Find the 5 term of series.
98 + 55
99 + 55
100 + 55
101 + 55
None of the above
Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions carefully:
Schemes Time Rate
A 30 years x 2 – 3x – 10 = 0
B y 2 – y – 6 = 0 20%
C 40 years
Information:
. Riya and Diya are two friends. They invested their sum in schemes A and B respectively. Diya invested Rs. 15000. Sum invested and profit earned by Riya is same.
. Riya also invested some money in scheme C at Simple Interest. Interest earned by her is same as profit earned by her from scheme A
. Rate in scheme C is greater than rate in scheme A.
Condition for choosing interest type:
. If time > rate, then Simple Interest should be considered in any scheme.
. If time < rate, then Compound Interest should be considered.
Note: .
Some values are missing. You have to calculate the according to the questions.
. Take positive values of the equations.
Question:
What is the ratio of interest earned by Riya from scheme C and Diya invested in schemes A and B. (Use data from previous questions if any is required)
11 : 5
6 : 5
8 : 5
12 : 5
None of the above
Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions carefully:
Schemes Time Rate
A 30 years x 2 – 3x – 10 = 0
B y 2 – y – 6 = 0 20%
C 40 years
Information:
. Riya and Diya are two friends. They invested their sum in schemes A and B respectively. Diya invested Rs. 15000. Sum invested and profit earned by Riya is same.
. Riya also invested some money in scheme C at Simple Interest. Interest earned by her is same as profit earned by her from scheme A
. Rate in scheme C is greater than rate in scheme A.
Condition for choosing interest type:
. If time > rate, then Simple Interest should be considered in any scheme.
. If time < rate, then Compound Interest should be considered.
Note: .
Some values are missing. You have to calculate the according to the questions.
. Take positive values of the equations.
Question:
What is the ratio of the time of Riya and Diya from their respective scheme A and C
3 : 4
4 : 3
2 : 5
5 : 7
None of the above
Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions carefully:
Schemes Time Rate
A 30 years x 2 – 3x – 10 = 0
B y 2 – y – 6 = 0 20%
C 40 years
Information:
. Riya and Diya are two friends. They invested their sum in schemes A and B respectively. Diya invested Rs. 15000. Sum invested and profit earned by Riya is same.
. Riya also invested some money in scheme C at Simple Interest. Interest earned by her is same as profit earned by her from scheme A
. Rate in scheme C is greater than rate in scheme A.
Condition for choosing interest type:
. If time > rate, then Simple Interest should be considered in any scheme.
. If time < rate, then Compound Interest should be considered.
Note: .
Some values are missing. You have to calculate the according to the questions.
. Take positive values of the equations.
Question:
What is the ratio of the interest rates of Riya and Diya from their respective schemes A and B?
11 : 55
12 : 27
13 : 52
16 : 112
None of the above
Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions carefully:
Schemes Time Rate
A 30 years x 2 – 3x – 10 = 0
B y 2 – y – 6 = 0 20%
C 40 years
Information:
. Riya and Diya are two friends. They invested their sum in schemes A and B respectively. Diya invested Rs. 15000. Sum invested and profit earned by Riya is same.
. Riya also invested some money in scheme C at Simple Interest. Interest earned by her is same as profit earned by her from scheme A
. Rate in scheme C is greater than rate in scheme A.
Condition for choosing interest type:
. If time > rate, then Simple Interest should be considered in any scheme.
. If time < rate, then Compound Interest should be considered.
Note: .
Some values are missing. You have to calculate the according to the questions.
. Take positive values of the equations.
Question:
Rate at which Riya invested in scheme C follows the equation z2 – 10z + 24 = 0 and the interest earned by her in scheme A is 160% of the amount invested by Diya in scheme B . Then find the amount received by Riya from scheme C.
30000
38000
34000
42000
None of the above
Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions carefully:
Schemes Time Rate
A 30 years x 2 – 3x – 10 = 0
B y 2 – y – 6 = 0 20%
C 40 years
Information:
. Riya and Diya are two friends. They invested their sum in schemes A and B respectively. Diya invested Rs. 15000. Sum invested and profit earned by Riya is same.
. Riya also invested some money in scheme C at Simple Interest. Interest earned by her is same as profit earned by her from scheme A
. Rate in scheme C is greater than rate in scheme A.
Condition for choosing interest type:
. If time > rate, then Simple Interest should be considered in any scheme.
. If time < rate, then Compound Interest should be considered.
Note: .
Some values are missing. You have to calculate the according to the questions.
. Take positive values of the equations.
Question:
If the ratio of investment of Riya and Diya in schemes A and B respectively is 2 : 3, then find the rate at which Riya invested in scheme A is what percent of actual SI percentage of the scheme. It is also given that Riya invested her sum for the whole duration of scheme A?
2/5%
20/9%
22/9%
5%
None of the above
Directions: Refer the table given below and answer the the following questions with the help of Actual work done by persons A, B and C with the maximum time required by each to complete the work. Data about three persons A, B and C is given in the table below:
Person Actual work done Maximum time(in hours)
A 50 units 10
B 60 units 12
C 15
Question:
If B works with 60% more than his minimin efficiency, then find the ratio of total units of work by B and total units of rest by B.
0.5 : 0.3
2.1 : 1.2
4.3 : 2.5
1.7 : 5.2
None of the above
Directions: Refer the table given below and answer the the following questions with the help of Actual work done by persons A, B and C with the maximum time required by each to complete the work. Data about three persons A, B and C is given in the table below:
Person Actual work done Maximum time(in hours)
A 50 units 10
B 60 units 12
C 15
Question:
If C works for 1 hour and then rests for next 10 mins. In similar manner, he completes his entire duration of work. If efficiency of C is 20% more than average of minimum efficiency of A and B. then, find total work done by C (in units)
90
64
82
78
None of the above
Directions: Refer the table given below and answer the the following questions with the help of Actual work done by persons A, B and C with the maximum time required by each to complete the work. Data about three persons A, B and C is given in the table below:
Person Actual work done Maximum time(in hours)
A 50 units 10
B 60 units 12
C 15
Question:
If B works with 60% more than his minimum efficiency. then, find the total time of rest of B in his entire duration of work.
5.5
4.5
7.5
2.5
None of the above
Directions: Refer the table given below and answer the the following questions with the help of Actual work done by persons A, B and C with the maximum time required by each to complete the work. Data about three persons A, B and C is given in the table below:
Person Actual work done Maximum time(in hours)
A 50 units 10
B 60 units 12
C 15
Question:
A worked work for 1 hour then he took rest for next 15 minutes. In similar pattern, he completed his entire duration of work. Then, find net efficiency of A in units per hour.
30/4
60/7
75/8
50/8
None of the above
Answer the questions based on given information:
I. 2x2 + 7x + k = 0
II. (ay + b)2 = 0
Larger root of equation I is root of equation II.
Smallest root of equation I is -2.
Sum of roots of equation I is,
-7
-4.5
-3.5
7
Can not be determined
Value of 'b' is,
3
-2
0
-1
Can not be determined
If p = -2 × √(k + 3), then, p is equal to,
6
-6
6 or -6
9
None of the above
Directions: There are 2 companies A and B consisting of 3 groups each named HR, Marketing, Finance. Information about three companies have been given below:
Company A: There are 64 existing members. If 2 new members are added in each group, then, ratio of number of total (existing + new) members in HR and Marketing groups to that in Finance group becomes 4 : 3. Company B: Number of HR members in existing group is 6 and no new member is added further in this particular group. Number of existing members in Finance group is equal to 10.
Also,
1. Number of total (new + existing) members in finance group of company B is half of number of total (new + existing) members in Marketing group of company A.
2. New members added in Finance group in company B is half of number of new members added in Marketing group of same company.
3. Number of total (new + existing) members of Marketing group in company A is 6 more than that in company B.
4. Total number of members (existing + new) of HR in company A and Finance in company B is equal to 28..
Question:
Find the ratio of average of existing members of HR and Finance in company A to final members of Marketing and Finance in company B.
8 : 7
7 : 5
5 : 2
7 : 4
None of these
Directions: There are 2 companies A and B consisting of 3 groups each named HR, Marketing, Finance. Information about three companies have been given below:
Company A: There are 64 existing members. If 2 new members are added in each group, then, ratio of number of total (existing + new) members in HR and Marketing groups to that in Finance group becomes 4 : 3. Company B: Number of HR members in existing group is 6 and no new member is added further in this particular group. Number of existing members in Finance group is equal to 10.
Also,
1. Number of total (new + existing) members in finance group of company B is half of number of total (new + existing) members in Marketing group of company A.
2. New members added in Finance group in company B is half of number of new members added in Marketing group of same company.
3. Number of total (new + existing) members of Marketing group in company A is 6 more than that in company B.
4. Total number of members (existing + new) of HR in company A and Finance in company B is equal to 28..
Question:
Find the ratio of existing members of HR in company A to final members of Finance in company B.
9 : 5
3 : 2
7 : 3
4 : 5
None of these
Directions: There are 2 companies A and B consisting of 3 groups each named HR, Marketing, Finance. Information about three companies have been given below:
Company A: There are 64 existing members. If 2 new members are added in each group, then, ratio of number of total (existing + new) members in HR and Marketing groups to that in Finance group becomes 4 : 3. Company B: Number of HR members in existing group is 6 and no new member is added further in this particular group. Number of existing members in Finance group is equal to 10.
Also,
1. Number of total (new + existing) members in finance group of company B is half of number of total (new + existing) members in Marketing group of company A.
2. New members added in Finance group in company B is half of number of new members added in Marketing group of same company.
3. Number of total (new + existing) members of Marketing group in company A is 6 more than that in company B.
4. Total number of members (existing + new) of HR in company A and Finance in company B is equal to 28..
Question:
If 5 members from total (new + existing) members of HR group of A are transferred to company B, then, total number of (new + existing) members in B are:
42
43
41
47
None of these
Directions: There are 2 companies A and B consisting of 3 groups each named HR, Marketing, Finance. Information about three companies have been given below:
Company A: There are 64 existing members. If 2 new members are added in each group, then, ratio of number of total (existing + new) members in HR and Marketing groups to that in Finance group becomes 4 : 3. Company B: Number of HR members in existing group is 6 and no new member is added further in this particular group. Number of existing members in Finance group is equal to 10.
Also,
1. Number of total (new + existing) members in finance group of company B is half of number of total (new + existing) members in Marketing group of company A.
2. New members added in Finance group in company B is half of number of new members added in Marketing group of same company.
3. Number of total (new + existing) members of Marketing group in company A is 6 more than that in company B.
4. Total number of members (existing + new) of HR in company A and Finance in company B is equal to 28..
Question:
Find the ratio of total (new + existing) members of company A and Company B.
7 : 4
5 : 3
7 : 3
9 : 4
None of these
Directions: There are 2 companies A and B consisting of 3 groups each named HR, Marketing, Finance. Information about three companies have been given below:
Company A: There are 64 existing members. If 2 new members are added in each group, then, ratio of number of total (existing + new) members in HR and Marketing groups to that in Finance group becomes 4 : 3. Company B: Number of HR members in existing group is 6 and no new member is added further in this particular group. Number of existing members in Finance group is equal to 10.
Also,
1. Number of total (new + existing) members in finance group of company B is half of number of total (new + existing) members in Marketing group of company A.
2. New members added in Finance group in company B is half of number of new members added in Marketing group of same company.
3. Number of total (new + existing) members of Marketing group in company A is 6 more than that in company B.
4. Total number of members (existing + new) of HR in company A and Finance in company B is equal to 28..
Question:
Find total number of existing members in company B.
24
30
42
36
None of these
Given below is information about 2 trains X and Y.
Train X: It starts from station A and after travelling 60 km, it reduces its speed by 25%. Hence, it reaches station B at 10 AM.
Train Y: It starts from station A at same time when train X starts and after travelling 90 km, it reduces its speed by 25%. Hence it reaches station B at 9 : 45 AM.
Had both travelled at their original speeds, then, they reach B at 8 : 30 AM.
Question:
Find the ratio of time taken by X and Y to cover half of distance AB.
16 : 15
18 : 5
14 : 13
7 : 2
None of these
Given below is information about 2 trains X and Y.
Train X: It starts from station A and after travelling 60 km, it reduces its speed by 25%. Hence, it reaches station B at 10 AM.
Train Y: It starts from station A at same time when train X starts and after travelling 90 km, it reduces its speed by 25%. Hence it reaches station B at 9 : 45 AM.
Had both travelled at their original speeds, then, they reach B at 8 : 30 AM.
Question:
If speed of train Z is 200% more than speed of train X. Then, find the time taken by it to cover distance AB.
3.1
4
2
1.9
None of these
Given below is information about 2 trains X and Y.
Train X: It starts from station A and after travelling 60 km, it reduces its speed by 25%. Hence, it reaches station B at 10 AM.
Train Y: It starts from station A at same time when train X starts and after travelling 90 km, it reduces its speed by 25%. Hence it reaches station B at 9 : 45 AM.
Had both travelled at their original speeds, then, they reach B at 8 : 30 AM.
Question:
Find distance between A and B stations.
150 km
180 km
210 km
240 km
None of these
In October 2021, RBI increase the IMPS limit from 2 lakhs. What is the new limit of IMPS transfer?
4 Lakhs
5 Lakhs
8 Lakhs
10 Lakhs
15 Lakhs
Branches of which of the following banks have started functioning as the branches of Bank of Baroda (BoB) from April 1, 2019?
Vijaya Bank
Dena Bank
Punjab Sindh Bank
Allahabad Bank
Both 1 and 2
What is the Share percentage of State Bank of India in Jio Payment bank?
10%
20%
70%
30%
60%
Who has won the 2021 Booker Prize for Fiction for his novel The Promise?
Anuk Arudpragasam
Damon Galgut
Patricia Lockwood
Marion Hänsel
None of these
Who will receive the Royal Gold Medal 2022 by the Royal Institute of British Architects (RIBA), the world’s highest honor for architecture?
Raj Rewal
Balkrishna Doshi
Mani Ratnam
P. C. Sreeram
None of these
The cabinet approved grant of Rs 4445 crores for the development of seven mega-textile parks under PM MITRA Yojana. MITRA is inspired by PM's 5F vision, which of the following is not among the 5F's?
Farm
Fashion
Fibre
Future
Foreign
Which of the following is incorrect for the Samudrayaan project?
The project proposes to send a submersible vehicle to a depth of about 6000 metres to carry out deep underwater studies
It will be a manned mission and have two persons on board.
It is a part of the Ministry of Earth Sciences' pilot project for deep ocean mining for rare minerals.
The project undertaken by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
It will help India to join the league of developed nations in exploration of minerals from oceans.
Harnaaz Sandhu has been crowned Miss Universe 2021, It is which edition of the Miss Universe event?
68th
69th
70th
71th
72th
Choose the incorrect answer regarding the Prompt Corrective Action(PCA) Framework launched by RBI on December 14, 2021?
The PCA Framework is for the Non-Banking Financial Company's
The PCA Framework will be only applicable to Deposit-Taking NBFCs.
The provisions of the PCA Framework will be effective from October 2022.
Capital and Asset Quality would be key monitoring areas.
PCA framework for NBFCs will be reviewed after three years.
As per the data released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), retail inflation declined to how much per cent in September 2021?
2.15
4.35
6.55
8.75
9.95
In December 2021, which of the following has been recognized under the 1971 Ramsar Convention on Wetlands?
Wular Lake
Harike Wetland
Haiderpur Wetland
Ropar Wetland
All of the above
Which of the following countries are the part of the AUKUS Grouping?
Australia, India and United Kingdom
India, South Korea and United States
Australia, United Kingdom and United States
India, Russia and United Kingdom
None of the above
Wholesale price inflation (WPI) jumped to________ high of 14.23 per cent in the month of November 2021.
9-year
10-year
12-year
11-year
14-year
Choose the incorrect option regarding SFURTI clusters.
The NITI Aayog has funded an amount of around Rs.85 crore for the development of these 50 clusters.
It is under the Ministry of MSME
SFURTI stands for Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries.
This scheme was launched in the year 2005 with the view to promote Cluster development.
None of these
On November 29th, 2021, World Health Organisation (WHO) has classified the new COVID-19 variant B.1.1.529 as Omicron. Omicron is the 15th letter of the Greek alphabet. In the system of Greek numerals, omicron has a value of ___.
40
50
70
30
60
Who has been named Time magazine's "Person of the Year" for 2021?
Jeff Bezos
Bill Gates
Elon Musk
Warren Buffett
None of these
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (URBAN), consider the following statements.
1. It is launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA) in Mission mode.
2. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Mission has completed its 7th anniversary this year on 25th June.
3. This scheme intends to provide housing for all in urban areas by the year 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 only
In December 2021, who among the following has won the FIDE World Chess Championship 2021?
Magnus Carlsen
Ian Nepomniachtchi
Viswanathan Anand
Garry Kasparov
Kidambi Srikanth
According to Kantar’s BrandZ India 2021 report, _____, __________and _______ emerged as the most purposeful brands in India across technology, FMCG, and non-FMCG categories respectively.
Amazon, Tata Tea and Asian Paints
Zomato Surf,Excel(Detergent brand) and Samsung & Jio
YouTube ,Taj Mahal (tea brand) and MRF
Flipkart ,Britannia and Airtel
None of these
The 7th Schedule of Indian Constitution is related to _______.
Acts and Regulation
Division of Powers
Union of States
Provision of Schedule Area
Official Language
As of 30 September 2021, A total number of branches of public sector banks in India is ______
45,166
85,166
75,166
65,166
55,166
Who is author of the book All In: An Autobiography?
Agatha Christie
Ayn Rand
Billie Jean King
Barbara Cartland
George Orwell
The World Inequality Report 2022 has been released by the Paris-based World Inequality Lab.Which of the following is the most unequal region in the world ?
Central and Eastern Europe.
Central & South Asia
Australia
Middle East and North Africa
None of thesr
What is the theme of the 13th ASEM (Asia–Europe Meeting) Summit, being held virtually from 25 November 2021?
Strengthening Multilateralism for Shared Growth
Global Partners for Global Challenges
Partnership the Future through Connectivity
A Passage to Asia
None of these
Which of the following institutions was formed in 1960 to assist the poor countries which could not afford to borrow capital at market rates?
World Health Organisation
International Chamber of Commerce
International Business Organization
International Development Association
Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
K.V. Kamath committee, recently seen in news, is related to
To decide the appropriate level of reserves that the RBI should hold
To make recommendations on norms for the resolution of COVID-19 related stressed loans
To analyse the pollution level of National Capital region of Delhi
To analyse FDI norms in India
None of the above
The Union Cabinet approved a production linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the pharmaceutical sector for the financial year 2020-21 to ________ to increase investment.
2027-28
2026-27
2028-29
2029-30
2025-26
Skill India program aims to achieve a target of training 400 million people by _________.
2022
2025
2030
2040
2050
Which of the the following is wrong match of CEO with Global Company?
Raghu Raghuraman -VMware
Shantanu Narayen- Adobe Inc.
Jayshree Ullal -Arista Networks
Parag Aggarwal -Twitter
Dinesh C Paliwal-Reckitt Benckise
Choose the incorrect statement regarding recently launched RBI's Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme was launched by Reserve Bank of India in November 2021.
The scheme is launched for Non-Banking Financial Company(NBFC), banks and pre-paid instrument players.
The scheme will amalgamate banking ombudsman scheme 2006, NBFC ombudsman scheme 2018 and Ombudsman scheme of digital transactions 2019.
The first centralized jurisdiction neutral receipt and processing center is set up in New Delhi.
The executive director of Consumer Education and Protection Department of RBI will be the appellate authority under the integrated scheme.
Bharti Airtel successfully conducted India’s first 5G trial in the 700 MHz band in partnership with which of the following in November 2021?
Samsung
Nokia
Motorola
Vivo
Mi
According to a report which cited the latest census data, the median family earnings of Indians in the US is how many USD?
106,450
111,890
123,700
135,900
142,907
SAMADHAAN portal has been launched by which ministry?
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
Law
Mines
Labour and Employment
Science and Technology
Reserve Bank of India has recently conducted a consumer confidence survey. Which of the following statement is TRUE in regard to the survey?
Statement 1: The current situation index fell to 53.1 in March from 55.5 in January, according to the Reserve Bank of India’s consumer confidence survey Statement 2: Income and prices and the current situation index had hit a record low of 49.9 in September
Both 1 and 2
Either 1 or 2
Only 2
None of the above
Only 1
Which of the following bank recently tied up with Star Health and Allied Insurance Company Limited?
South Indian Bank
Kerala Gramin Bank
Federal Bank
Vallivattom Service Co-operative Bank
Dhanlaxmi Bank
Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved Zomato’s request to acquire approximately how much per cent stake in the online grocery platform Grofers India and its wholesale entity Hands on Trades?
6.1
7.9
8.4
9.3
10.5
FDI limit in the Defence manufacturing under automatic route was be raised to ____ per cent.
49
51
74
80
30
The uniform GST rate on MMF(man-made fibre) products 12% recently announced by the Finance Ministry. What was the previous GST rate on MMF product?
14 per cent
11 per cent
18 per cent
12 per cent
28 pert cent
In 2022, how many public sector banks in India?
22
13
12
14
13
In November 2021, RBI introduced an Internal Ombudsman mechanism for select Non-Banking Financial Companies.Non-Deposit-taking NBFCs with assets size of _______must appoint an Internal Ombudsman (IO).
Rs.50 crore
Rs.500 crore
Rs.5,000 crore
Rs.1,000 crore
Rs.100 crore
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
At one level, colonialism simply means the establishment of rule by one country over another. In the modern period, Western colonialism has had the greatest impact. India’s past has been marked by the entry of numerous groups of people at different times who have established their rule over different parts of what constitutes modern India today. The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules because the changes it brought in were far-reaching and deep. History is full of examples of the annexation of foreign territory and the domination of weaker by stronger powers. Nevertheless, there is a vital difference between the empire-building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times. Apart from outright pillage, the pre-capitalist conquerors benefited from their domination by exacting a continuous flow of tribute. On the whole, they did not interfere with the economic base. They simply took the tribute that was skimmed off the economic surplus that was produced traditionally in the subjugated areas.
For instance, it changed the very laws of the land. (A) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism. (B) It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops ought to be grown and what ought not to be. (C) In contrast, British colonialism which was based on a capitalist system directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit to British capitalism. (D) It meddled with the manufacturing sector. It altered the way the production and distribution of goods took place. It entered into the forests. It cleared trees and started tea plantations. It brought in Forest Acts that changed the lives of pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. The box carries a brief account of the impact of colonial forest policy in North-East India.
Colonialism also led to the considerable movement of people. It led to the movement of people from one part to another within India. For instance, people from present-day Jharkhand moved to Assam to work on the tea plantations. A newly emerging middle class particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. People were carted in ships from India to work on other colonized lands in distant Asia, Africa, and the Americas. Many died on their way. Most could never return. Today many of their descendants are known as people of Indian origin.
Question:
In a passage, a sentence is highlighted, divided into four parts, and jumbled, which when arranged will form a logical and coherent sentence. Rearrange to form a meaningful sentence and choose the option that represents the correct arrangement.
DACB
DBAC
ABCD
CDBA
ABDC
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
At one level, colonialism simply means the establishment of rule by one country over another. In the modern period, Western colonialism has had the greatest impact. India’s past has been marked by the entry of numerous groups of people at different times who have established their rule over different parts of what constitutes modern India today. The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules because the changes it brought in were far-reaching and deep. History is full of examples of the annexation of foreign territory and the domination of weaker by stronger powers. Nevertheless, there is a vital difference between the empire-building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times. Apart from outright pillage, the pre-capitalist conquerors benefited from their domination by exacting a continuous flow of tribute. On the whole, they did not interfere with the economic base. They simply took the tribute that was skimmed off the economic surplus that was produced traditionally in the subjugated areas.
For instance, it changed the very laws of the land. (A) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism. (B) It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops ought to be grown and what ought not to be. (C) In contrast, British colonialism which was based on a capitalist system directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit to British capitalism. (D) It meddled with the manufacturing sector. It altered the way the production and distribution of goods took place. It entered into the forests. It cleared trees and started tea plantations. It brought in Forest Acts that changed the lives of pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. The box carries a brief account of the impact of colonial forest policy in North-East India.
Colonialism also led to the considerable movement of people. It led to the movement of people from one part to another within India. For instance, people from present-day Jharkhand moved to Assam to work on the tea plantations. A newly emerging middle class particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. People were carted in ships from India to work on other colonized lands in distant Asia, Africa, and the Americas. Many died on their way. Most could never return. Today many of their descendants are known as people of Indian origin.
Question:
What is the synonym of the word conquerors?
underdog
vanquished
loser
defeater
quitter
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
At one level, colonialism simply means the establishment of rule by one country over another. In the modern period, Western colonialism has had the greatest impact. India’s past has been marked by the entry of numerous groups of people at different times who have established their rule over different parts of what constitutes modern India today. The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules because the changes it brought in were far-reaching and deep. History is full of examples of the annexation of foreign territory and the domination of weaker by stronger powers. Nevertheless, there is a vital difference between the empire-building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times. Apart from outright pillage, the pre-capitalist conquerors benefited from their domination by exacting a continuous flow of tribute. On the whole, they did not interfere with the economic base. They simply took the tribute that was skimmed off the economic surplus that was produced traditionally in the subjugated areas.
For instance, it changed the very laws of the land. (A) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism. (B) It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops ought to be grown and what ought not to be. (C) In contrast, British colonialism which was based on a capitalist system directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit to British capitalism. (D) It meddled with the manufacturing sector. It altered the way the production and distribution of goods took place. It entered into the forests. It cleared trees and started tea plantations. It brought in Forest Acts that changed the lives of pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. The box carries a brief account of the impact of colonial forest policy in North-East India.
Colonialism also led to the considerable movement of people. It led to the movement of people from one part to another within India. For instance, people from present-day Jharkhand moved to Assam to work on the tea plantations. A newly emerging middle class particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. People were carted in ships from India to work on other colonized lands in distant Asia, Africa, and the Americas. Many died on their way. Most could never return. Today many of their descendants are known as people of Indian origin.
Question:
What is the synonym of the word tribute?
applause
condemnation
denunciation
stricture
dishonour
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
At one level, colonialism simply means the establishment of rule by one country over another. In the modern period, Western colonialism has had the greatest impact. India’s past has been marked by the entry of numerous groups of people at different times who have established their rule over different parts of what constitutes modern India today. The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules because the changes it brought in were far-reaching and deep. History is full of examples of the annexation of foreign territory and the domination of weaker by stronger powers. Nevertheless, there is a vital difference between the empire-building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times. Apart from outright pillage, the pre-capitalist conquerors benefited from their domination by exacting a continuous flow of tribute. On the whole, they did not interfere with the economic base. They simply took the tribute that was skimmed off the economic surplus that was produced traditionally in the subjugated areas.
For instance, it changed the very laws of the land. (A) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism. (B) It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops ought to be grown and what ought not to be. (C) In contrast, British colonialism which was based on a capitalist system directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit to British capitalism. (D) It meddled with the manufacturing sector. It altered the way the production and distribution of goods took place. It entered into the forests. It cleared trees and started tea plantations. It brought in Forest Acts that changed the lives of pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. The box carries a brief account of the impact of colonial forest policy in North-East India.
Colonialism also led to the considerable movement of people. It led to the movement of people from one part to another within India. For instance, people from present-day Jharkhand moved to Assam to work on the tea plantations. A newly emerging middle class particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. People were carted in ships from India to work on other colonized lands in distant Asia, Africa, and the Americas. Many died on their way. Most could never return. Today many of their descendants are known as people of Indian origin.
Question:
What is the main idea of the passage?
Impact of colonolism
Understanding colonialism
The history of colonolism
British colonolism
Colonolism Policy
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
At one level, colonialism simply means the establishment of rule by one country over another. In the modern period, Western colonialism has had the greatest impact. India’s past has been marked by the entry of numerous groups of people at different times who have established their rule over different parts of what constitutes modern India today. The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules because the changes it brought in were far-reaching and deep. History is full of examples of the annexation of foreign territory and the domination of weaker by stronger powers. Nevertheless, there is a vital difference between the empire-building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times. Apart from outright pillage, the pre-capitalist conquerors benefited from their domination by exacting a continuous flow of tribute. On the whole, they did not interfere with the economic base. They simply took the tribute that was skimmed off the economic surplus that was produced traditionally in the subjugated areas.
For instance, it changed the very laws of the land. (A) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism. (B) It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops ought to be grown and what ought not to be. (C) In contrast, British colonialism which was based on a capitalist system directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit to British capitalism. (D) It meddled with the manufacturing sector. It altered the way the production and distribution of goods took place. It entered into the forests. It cleared trees and started tea plantations. It brought in Forest Acts that changed the lives of pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. The box carries a brief account of the impact of colonial forest policy in North-East India.
Colonialism also led to the considerable movement of people. It led to the movement of people from one part to another within India. For instance, people from present-day Jharkhand moved to Assam to work on the tea plantations. A newly emerging middle class particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. People were carted in ships from India to work on other colonized lands in distant Asia, Africa, and the Americas. Many died on their way. Most could never return. Today many of their descendants are known as people of Indian origin.
Question:
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option based on your reading of the passage. By using the phrase 'skimmed off' the author wants to say that they took the honor that was __________ from the economic surplus.
taken away
Taken
gave away
seen from
taken to
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
At one level, colonialism simply means the establishment of rule by one country over another. In the modern period, Western colonialism has had the greatest impact. India’s past has been marked by the entry of numerous groups of people at different times who have established their rule over different parts of what constitutes modern India today. The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules because the changes it brought in were far-reaching and deep. History is full of examples of the annexation of foreign territory and the domination of weaker by stronger powers. Nevertheless, there is a vital difference between the empire-building of pre-capitalist times and that of capitalist times. Apart from outright pillage, the pre-capitalist conquerors benefited from their domination by exacting a continuous flow of tribute. On the whole, they did not interfere with the economic base. They simply took the tribute that was skimmed off the economic surplus that was produced traditionally in the subjugated areas.
For instance, it changed the very laws of the land. (A) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism. (B) It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops ought to be grown and what ought not to be. (C) In contrast, British colonialism which was based on a capitalist system directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit to British capitalism. (D) It meddled with the manufacturing sector. It altered the way the production and distribution of goods took place. It entered into the forests. It cleared trees and started tea plantations. It brought in Forest Acts that changed the lives of pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. The box carries a brief account of the impact of colonial forest policy in North-East India.
Colonialism also led to the considerable movement of people. It led to the movement of people from one part to another within India. For instance, people from present-day Jharkhand moved to Assam to work on the tea plantations. A newly emerging middle class particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. People were carted in ships from India to work on other colonized lands in distant Asia, Africa, and the Americas. Many died on their way. Most could never return. Today many of their descendants are known as people of Indian origin.
Question:
What is the tone of the passage?
Cynical
Informative
Emotional
Arrogant
Commiserating
Choose which sentence is true/false:
Statement I: The impact of colonial rule is distinguishable from all other earlier rules.
Statement II: Because the changes it brought in were limited and shallow.
Statement I is true and statement II is false
Statement I is false and statement II is true
Both statement I and II are true
Both statement I and II are false
None of the above
What is the correct meaning of the word descendants?
A person who held a job or office before the current holder.
A person or thing that succeeds another.
A person, plant, or animal that is descended from a particular ancestor.
A person who inherits something; an heir.
None of the above
Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention
Australia, which is globally the fifth largest exporter of cotton, is looking at India to emerge as a consistent and major buyer of its commodity. An eight-member delegation representing the Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association held meetings in Ludhiana, Mumbai, and Coimbatore between February 27 and March 3. “We came to promote and enhance use of Australian cotton,” Matthew Bradd, chairman of Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association, told The Hindu here on Thursday. “We want India to become a consistent buyer of our cotton.” Australia has nearly 1,200 cotton growers and can supply even small quantities of cotton to India. China purchased over 30% of Australia’s cotton production last year. However, this was lower than its usual purchase.“India is a big market for cotton and spinners in India said they have had good experience with Australian cotton,” he said. According to Hamish McIntyre, vice-chairman of Cotton Australia and a member of the eight-member delegation, India used to purchase 5% to 7% of cotton produced in Australia every year. In 2016, it shot up to nearly 23%. This was mainly because of the drop in production in India last year. Indian textile mills can use Australian cotton as a blend to produce high value garments. The area under cotton and production was increasing in Australia, he said. K.N. Viswanathan, vice-president of Indian Cotton Federation, said that Australia cotton is known for its quality and strength. However, its production was limited until last year.India is the largest producer and consumer of cotton globally. But, India’s imports are also more to meet the need for long staple cotton. For Indian spinners, with failure of monsoon in many places this year where long staple cotton is grown, Australian cotton can be an option. At present, Australian cotton and Indian cotton prices seem to be almost at par. The Indian cotton industry faced a number of problems. Most of them did not have managerial leadership and technical knowledge except the financial capability so had to face the chill wind almost constantly. The result was the frequent changes of managing agents and liquidation of the companies on the one hand, and the oligarchic concentration of the mills to a few agency firms on the other hand. The Indian cotton textile industry had to face stiff competition from Britain’s most internationally aggressive cotton industry. And, in the process, British industry suffered a lot at the hands of the Indian industry. But some events of the 1920s eroded the competitiveness of the Indian industry. After the end of the World War I, Japanese exports of cloth to India acted as a big threat to the Indian industry though such Japanese exports were held in check in the 1920s. But it reappeared after 1930 despite a high tariff rate of 50 p.c. Most of the labourers of the cotton mills were unsophisticated in the sense that they were recruited from the small peasants and agricultural labourers. As a result, permanent textile labour force could not arise. Textile machinery and technology used in this industry were imported before the World War I and it continued till the outbreak of the World War II. However, India could not procure modern equipments from America and Japan because technology of the cotton textile industry was heavily Manchester-biased.
Question:
What is the central idea of the passage?
Problems of the Indian cotton industry.
The competitiveness of the Indian cotton industry.
Australia's eagerness to make a stable position for its cotton industry in the Indian market.
Competition of China and India as the importer of cotton.
Need for India to import cotton from Australia.
Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention
Australia, which is globally the fifth largest exporter of cotton, is looking at India to emerge as a consistent and major buyer of its commodity. An eight-member delegation representing the Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association held meetings in Ludhiana, Mumbai, and Coimbatore between February 27 and March 3. “We came to promote and enhance use of Australian cotton,” Matthew Bradd, chairman of Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association, told The Hindu here on Thursday. “We want India to become a consistent buyer of our cotton.” Australia has nearly 1,200 cotton growers and can supply even small quantities of cotton to India. China purchased over 30% of Australia’s cotton production last year. However, this was lower than its usual purchase.“India is a big market for cotton and spinners in India said they have had good experience with Australian cotton,” he said. According to Hamish McIntyre, vice-chairman of Cotton Australia and a member of the eight-member delegation, India used to purchase 5% to 7% of cotton produced in Australia every year. In 2016, it shot up to nearly 23%. This was mainly because of the drop in production in India last year. Indian textile mills can use Australian cotton as a blend to produce high value garments. The area under cotton and production was increasing in Australia, he said. K.N. Viswanathan, vice-president of Indian Cotton Federation, said that Australia cotton is known for its quality and strength. However, its production was limited until last year.India is the largest producer and consumer of cotton globally. But, India’s imports are also more to meet the need for long staple cotton. For Indian spinners, with failure of monsoon in many places this year where long staple cotton is grown, Australian cotton can be an option. At present, Australian cotton and Indian cotton prices seem to be almost at par. The Indian cotton industry faced a number of problems. Most of them did not have managerial leadership and technical knowledge except the financial capability so had to face the chill wind almost constantly. The result was the frequent changes of managing agents and liquidation of the companies on the one hand, and the oligarchic concentration of the mills to a few agency firms on the other hand. The Indian cotton textile industry had to face stiff competition from Britain’s most internationally aggressive cotton industry. And, in the process, British industry suffered a lot at the hands of the Indian industry. But some events of the 1920s eroded the competitiveness of the Indian industry. After the end of the World War I, Japanese exports of cloth to India acted as a big threat to the Indian industry though such Japanese exports were held in check in the 1920s. But it reappeared after 1930 despite a high tariff rate of 50 p.c. Most of the labourers of the cotton mills were unsophisticated in the sense that they were recruited from the small peasants and agricultural labourers. As a result, permanent textile labour force could not arise. Textile machinery and technology used in this industry were imported before the World War I and it continued till the outbreak of the World War II. However, India could not procure modern equipments from America and Japan because technology of the cotton textile industry was heavily Manchester-biased.
Question:
What makes the Australian variant of cotton so popular?
The Australian variety is much cheaper than Indian cotton.
Australian cotton is known for its strength and quality
Majority of the people of India are involved in the cotton industry.
Technology has played a big role in making it popular.
The stability of the Australian cotton industry makes it popular.
Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention
Australia, which is globally the fifth largest exporter of cotton, is looking at India to emerge as a consistent and major buyer of its commodity. An eight-member delegation representing the Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association held meetings in Ludhiana, Mumbai, and Coimbatore between February 27 and March 3. “We came to promote and enhance use of Australian cotton,” Matthew Bradd, chairman of Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association, told The Hindu here on Thursday. “We want India to become a consistent buyer of our cotton.” Australia has nearly 1,200 cotton growers and can supply even small quantities of cotton to India. China purchased over 30% of Australia’s cotton production last year. However, this was lower than its usual purchase.“India is a big market for cotton and spinners in India said they have had good experience with Australian cotton,” he said. According to Hamish McIntyre, vice-chairman of Cotton Australia and a member of the eight-member delegation, India used to purchase 5% to 7% of cotton produced in Australia every year. In 2016, it shot up to nearly 23%. This was mainly because of the drop in production in India last year. Indian textile mills can use Australian cotton as a blend to produce high value garments. The area under cotton and production was increasing in Australia, he said. K.N. Viswanathan, vice-president of Indian Cotton Federation, said that Australia cotton is known for its quality and strength. However, its production was limited until last year.India is the largest producer and consumer of cotton globally. But, India’s imports are also more to meet the need for long staple cotton. For Indian spinners, with failure of monsoon in many places this year where long staple cotton is grown, Australian cotton can be an option. At present, Australian cotton and Indian cotton prices seem to be almost at par. The Indian cotton industry faced a number of problems. Most of them did not have managerial leadership and technical knowledge except the financial capability so had to face the chill wind almost constantly. The result was the frequent changes of managing agents and liquidation of the companies on the one hand, and the oligarchic concentration of the mills to a few agency firms on the other hand. The Indian cotton textile industry had to face stiff competition from Britain’s most internationally aggressive cotton industry. And, in the process, British industry suffered a lot at the hands of the Indian industry. But some events of the 1920s eroded the competitiveness of the Indian industry. After the end of the World War I, Japanese exports of cloth to India acted as a big threat to the Indian industry though such Japanese exports were held in check in the 1920s. But it reappeared after 1930 despite a high tariff rate of 50 p.c. Most of the labourers of the cotton mills were unsophisticated in the sense that they were recruited from the small peasants and agricultural labourers. As a result, permanent textile labour force could not arise. Textile machinery and technology used in this industry were imported before the World War I and it continued till the outbreak of the World War II. However, India could not procure modern equipments from America and Japan because technology of the cotton textile industry was heavily Manchester-biased.
Question:
Is there any possibility of the Indian cotton industry getting benefited by the Australian cotton industry? If yes, how?
The Indian cotton industry can benefit only if the tariffs are kept low.
Indian cotton can be blended with the Australian cotton to produce higher quality garments.
The problems faced from the labour force can be reduced if the dependence of the cotton industry increases on Australia.
The Indian cotton industry can get seriously hampered as both the cotton are of the same quality.
There is competition between the two countries and none can benefit from each other.
Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention
Australia, which is globally the fifth largest exporter of cotton, is looking at India to emerge as a consistent and major buyer of its commodity. An eight-member delegation representing the Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association held meetings in Ludhiana, Mumbai, and Coimbatore between February 27 and March 3. “We came to promote and enhance use of Australian cotton,” Matthew Bradd, chairman of Australian Cotton Shippers’ Association, told The Hindu here on Thursday. “We want India to become a consistent buyer of our cotton.” Australia has nearly 1,200 cotton growers and can supply even small quantities of cotton to India. China purchased over 30% of Australia’s cotton production last year. However, this was lower than its usual purchase.“India is a big market for cotton and spinners in India said they have had good experience with Australian cotton,” he said. According to Hamish McIntyre, vice-chairman of Cotton Australia and a member of the eight-member delegation, India used to purchase 5% to 7% of cotton produced in Australia every year. In 2016, it shot up to nearly 23%. This was mainly because of the drop in production in India last year. Indian textile mills can use Australian cotton as a blend to produce high value garments. The area under cotton and production was increasing in Australia, he said. K.N. Viswanathan, vice-president of Indian Cotton Federation, said that Australia cotton is known for its quality and strength. However, its production was limited until last year.India is the largest producer and consumer of cotton globally. But, India’s imports are also more to meet the need for long staple cotton. For Indian spinners, with failure of monsoon in many places this year where long staple cotton is grown, Australian cotton can be an option. At present, Australian cotton and Indian cotton prices seem to be almost at par. The Indian cotton industry faced a number of problems. Most of them did not have managerial leadership and technical knowledge except the financial capability so had to face the chill wind almost constantly. The result was the frequent changes of managing agents and liquidation of the companies on the one hand, and the oligarchic concentration of the mills to a few agency firms on the other hand. The Indian cotton textile industry had to face stiff competition from Britain’s most internationally aggressive cotton industry. And, in the process, British industry suffered a lot at the hands of the Indian industry. But some events of the 1920s eroded the competitiveness of the Indian industry. After the end of the World War I, Japanese exports of cloth to India acted as a big threat to the Indian industry though such Japanese exports were held in check in the 1920s. But it reappeared after 1930 despite a high tariff rate of 50 p.c. Most of the labourers of the cotton mills were unsophisticated in the sense that they were recruited from the small peasants and agricultural labourers. As a result, permanent textile labour force could not arise. Textile machinery and technology used in this industry were imported before the World War I and it continued till the outbreak of the World War II. However, India could not procure modern equipments from America and Japan because technology of the cotton textile industry was heavily Manchester-biased.
Question:
What can be inferred from the problems faced by the Indian cotton industry that plays a major role in failure of the industry?
Competition with other countries
Inefficient labourers
Lack of financial capability
Lack of technical and managerial education
Impacts of a war
In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.
A - F, B - E, C - D
B - D, C - E
A - E, B - F, C - D
A - D, B - E
None of these
In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these as your answer.
A - E, B - F
B - F, C - D
A - D, C - E
B - E, C - D
None of these
Direction: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options are fit for replacement, according to you, then select ‘None of these' as your answer.
India’s Economic growth has slowed for 5 _______(A) (that follow one after another) quarters beginning from late 2015-16 onwards. It could be a serious blow for a government that had promised to turn around the economy through ________(B) (capable of making choices quickly and surely) governance. India’s GDP growth has gone down from a high of 9.2% in the Third Quarter of the year 2016 to 5.7% in the current 4thquarter of 2017. The economic growth rate is probably the slowest in the last many years. However, the Indian Economy as per global standard is not in the _______(C) (slowdown or a massive contraction) stage. The UK and the European Union consider an economy in recession only when real GDP growth actually turns negative over two consecutive quarters and by this criterion, with a positive growth rate of 5.7%, the Indian economy is far off from being in a recession. All four contributors to economic growth – domestic consumption, foreign consumption or exports, private investment and government spending – are hit by the slowdown. In the first quarter of this ______ (D) (connected with [public] money) year, domestic consumption fell to 6.66% as against 8.41% in the same period last fiscal; exports as a share of the Gross Domestic Product was down to 19% from 20%; and fixed capital formation decreased from about 31% of the GDP to 29.8%, _______(E) (to convey something) a slowdown in the industry as well.
Question:
Which of the following fits the blank labelled (A)?
distinct
consecutive
disparate
respective
None of the above
Direction: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options are fit for replacement, according to you, then select ‘None of these' as your answer.
India’s Economic growth has slowed for 5 _______(A) (that follow one after another) quarters beginning from late 2015-16 onwards. It could be a serious blow for a government that had promised to turn around the economy through ________(B) (capable of making choices quickly and surely) governance. India’s GDP growth has gone down from a high of 9.2% in the Third Quarter of the year 2016 to 5.7% in the current 4thquarter of 2017. The economic growth rate is probably the slowest in the last many years. However, the Indian Economy as per global standard is not in the _______(C) (slowdown or a massive contraction) stage. The UK and the European Union consider an economy in recession only when real GDP growth actually turns negative over two consecutive quarters and by this criterion, with a positive growth rate of 5.7%, the Indian economy is far off from being in a recession. All four contributors to economic growth – domestic consumption, foreign consumption or exports, private investment and government spending – are hit by the slowdown. In the first quarter of this ______ (D) (connected with [public] money) year, domestic consumption fell to 6.66% as against 8.41% in the same period last fiscal; exports as a share of the Gross Domestic Product was down to 19% from 20%; and fixed capital formation decreased from about 31% of the GDP to 29.8%, _______(E) (to convey something) a slowdown in the industry as well.
Question:
Which of the following fits the blank labelled (B)?
hitched
trifling
flimsy
decisive
None of the above
Direction: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options are fit for replacement, according to you, then select ‘None of these' as your answer.
India’s Economic growth has slowed for 5 _______(A) (that follow one after another) quarters beginning from late 2015-16 onwards. It could be a serious blow for a government that had promised to turn around the economy through ________(B) (capable of making choices quickly and surely) governance. India’s GDP growth has gone down from a high of 9.2% in the Third Quarter of the year 2016 to 5.7% in the current 4thquarter of 2017. The economic growth rate is probably the slowest in the last many years. However, the Indian Economy as per global standard is not in the _______(C) (slowdown or a massive contraction) stage. The UK and the European Union consider an economy in recession only when real GDP growth actually turns negative over two consecutive quarters and by this criterion, with a positive growth rate of 5.7%, the Indian economy is far off from being in a recession. All four contributors to economic growth – domestic consumption, foreign consumption or exports, private investment and government spending – are hit by the slowdown. In the first quarter of this ______ (D) (connected with [public] money) year, domestic consumption fell to 6.66% as against 8.41% in the same period last fiscal; exports as a share of the Gross Domestic Product was down to 19% from 20%; and fixed capital formation decreased from about 31% of the GDP to 29.8%, _______(E) (to convey something) a slowdown in the industry as well.
Question:
Which of the following fits the blank labelled (C)?
recessionary
peripheral
resurgence
marshal
None of the above
Direction: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options are fit for replacement, according to you, then select ‘None of these' as your answer.
India’s Economic growth has slowed for 5 _______(A) (that follow one after another) quarters beginning from late 2015-16 onwards. It could be a serious blow for a government that had promised to turn around the economy through ________(B) (capable of making choices quickly and surely) governance. India’s GDP growth has gone down from a high of 9.2% in the Third Quarter of the year 2016 to 5.7% in the current 4thquarter of 2017. The economic growth rate is probably the slowest in the last many years. However, the Indian Economy as per global standard is not in the _______(C) (slowdown or a massive contraction) stage. The UK and the European Union consider an economy in recession only when real GDP growth actually turns negative over two consecutive quarters and by this criterion, with a positive growth rate of 5.7%, the Indian economy is far off from being in a recession. All four contributors to economic growth – domestic consumption, foreign consumption or exports, private investment and government spending – are hit by the slowdown. In the first quarter of this ______ (D) (connected with [public] money) year, domestic consumption fell to 6.66% as against 8.41% in the same period last fiscal; exports as a share of the Gross Domestic Product was down to 19% from 20%; and fixed capital formation decreased from about 31% of the GDP to 29.8%, _______(E) (to convey something) a slowdown in the industry as well.
Question:
Which of the following fits the blank labelled (D)?
rebound
resile
extol
fiscal
None of the above
Direction: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options are fit for replacement, according to you, then select ‘None of these' as your answer.
India’s Economic growth has slowed for 5 _______(A) (that follow one after another) quarters beginning from late 2015-16 onwards. It could be a serious blow for a government that had promised to turn around the economy through ________(B) (capable of making choices quickly and surely) governance. India’s GDP growth has gone down from a high of 9.2% in the Third Quarter of the year 2016 to 5.7% in the current 4thquarter of 2017. The economic growth rate is probably the slowest in the last many years. However, the Indian Economy as per global standard is not in the _______(C) (slowdown or a massive contraction) stage. The UK and the European Union consider an economy in recession only when real GDP growth actually turns negative over two consecutive quarters and by this criterion, with a positive growth rate of 5.7%, the Indian economy is far off from being in a recession. All four contributors to economic growth – domestic consumption, foreign consumption or exports, private investment and government spending – are hit by the slowdown. In the first quarter of this ______ (D) (connected with [public] money) year, domestic consumption fell to 6.66% as against 8.41% in the same period last fiscal; exports as a share of the Gross Domestic Product was down to 19% from 20%; and fixed capital formation decreased from about 31% of the GDP to 29.8%, _______(E) (to convey something) a slowdown in the industry as well.
Question:
Which of the following fits the blank labelled (E)?
conspicuous
eminent
acclaim
mediocre
None of the above
Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, among which only three have been arranged in sequence and two sentences must be interchanged so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.
A. Miss Universe is an annual international beauty pageant that is run by the United States-based Miss Universe Organization.
B. Telemundo has the licensing rights to air the pageant for the next 5 years.
C. The Miss Universe Organization and its brand are currently owned by Endeavor.
D. Along with Miss World, Miss International, and Miss Earth, Miss Universe is one of the Big Four international beauty pageants.
E. The pageant's advocacy is humanitarian issues and is a voice to affect positive change in the world
Question:
Which of the following pairs of sentences must be interchanged in order to make the set of sentences a meaningful paragraph?
A and C
B and D
D and A
B and E
C and B
Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, among which only three have been arranged in sequence and two sentences must be interchanged so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.
A. Miss Universe is an annual international beauty pageant that is run by the United States-based Miss Universe Organization.
B. Telemundo has the licensing rights to air the pageant for the next 5 years.
C. The Miss Universe Organization and its brand are currently owned by Endeavor.
D. Along with Miss World, Miss International, and Miss Earth, Miss Universe is one of the Big Four international beauty pageants.
E. The pageant's advocacy is humanitarian issues and is a voice to affect positive change in the world
Question:
After forming a meaningful paragraph, which of the sentences can immediately follow B:
I. The reselling of the franchise from one owner to the next is recurrently common in the history of the event, sometimes for contractual breaches or financial reasons.
II. It is one of the most-watched pageants in the world with an estimated audience of over 500 million viewers in over 190 territories.
III. The fee includes the rights of image, brand, and everything related to the pageant.
Only II
I and II both 3
II and III both
Only III
Only I
Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, among which only three have been arranged in sequence and two sentences must be interchanged so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.
A. Miss Universe is an annual international beauty pageant that is run by the United States-based Miss Universe Organization.
B. Telemundo has the licensing rights to air the pageant for the next 5 years.
C. The Miss Universe Organization and its brand are currently owned by Endeavor.
D. Along with Miss World, Miss International, and Miss Earth, Miss Universe is one of the Big Four international beauty pageants.
E. The pageant's advocacy is humanitarian issues and is a voice to affect positive change in the world
Question:
After forming a meaningful paragraph, which of the sentences can immediately follow E:
I. This crown was purely made from rhinestones.
II. The crown is set with 1,371 gemstones, weighing a total of 416.09 carats (83.218 g).
III. The current Miss Universe is Harnaaz Sandhu of India who was crowned by Andrea Meza of Mexico on December 12, 2021, in Eilat, Israel.
Only I
I and II both
II and III both
Only III
Only II
Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no change is required, mark 'No arrangement required’ as your answer
Every morning feeds(A) wakes up at six Tina(B), first she breakfast(C) the eggs and o'clock(D) the chickens, then she has collects(E) at 6:30.
ABCDE
BDEAC
BDCAE
ABDCE
No rearrangement
Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no change is required, mark 'No arrangement required’ as your answer
Last spend(A), we decided to beach(B) our vacation at the hot(C) because the weather was very mountains(D) in the summer(E).
ABDCE
EABCD
ABCDE
EABDC
No rearrangement
Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no change is required, mark 'No arrangement required’ as your answer.
A seemingly(A) wonder is that the greater(B) fragile toughest(C) is one of the kingdom(D) beasts in the animal hummingbird(E).
CDEAB
BEDAC
ACBDE
BAECD
No rearrangements
Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? if the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.
Though he had never won any awards or even been published, he was conservative with his life as a poet.
Complement
Concede
Deject
Complacent
Articulate
In the given question, a word in the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out of the given five options.
The child's parents or guardians must give their appraisal before she has the operation.
Epitome
Hurdle
Honor
Virtue
Consent
In the following sentence, a word has been emboldened/underlined. Select the best alternative for the bold/underlined word from the given options.
The secretary was dismissed after it was discovered that she was stealing office supplies.
Probate
Harbored
Ousted
Pilferage
Intend
9 In the following sentence, a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options.
I was shocked at the audacity and brazenness of the gangsters.
Cowardice
Insolence
Presumption
Brevity
Heed
In the following sentence, a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options.
The government refused to declare a/an amnesty for people who had not paid the disputed tax.
Pardon
Enormity
Affluence
Unabashed
Cede
Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted error. Select the option that has the same error as in the given sentence.
Many a player have participated in the competition.
a. None but (1)/ he are responsible (2)/ for this act (3)/ no error (4).
b. My sister like the other members (1)/ of my family were left shelterless (2)/ as a result of the flood in the city (3)/ no error (4).
a-(1), b-(1)
a-(4), b-(3)
a-(2), b-(2)
a-(3), b-(4)
None of the above
Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted error. Select the option that has the same error as in the given sentence.
Our dog may look fierce but that wouldn’t hurt even a fly
a. Put you in my position (1)/ and you will realize (2)/ the problems faced in my profession (3)/ No error (4). b. Vikas sir, being a good teacher (1)/ he is selected (2)/ for the Global Teacher Award (GTA) (3)/ No error (4)
a-(4), b-(3)
a-(1), b-(2)
a-(3), b-(4)
a-(2), b-(1)
None of the above
Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted error. Select the option that has the same error as in the given sentence.
She brought the chocolates and distributed them between her three children.
a. Their children (1)/ always quarrel (2)/ above petty issues (3)/ no error (4).
b. They walked (1)/ besides each other (2)/ in complete silence (3)/ no error (4).
a-(4), b-(1)
a-(1), b-(4)
a-(2), b-(3)
a-(3), b-(2)
None of the above
Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted error. Select the option that has the same error as in the given sentence.
One should face the challenges posed by life manly.
a. We seldom or ever (1)/ meet our (2)/ friends these days (3)/ no error (4).
b. He told her as blunt as (1)/ he could but (2)/ she was not convinced (3)/ no error (4).
a-(3), b-(4)
a-(4), b-(2)
a-(1), b-(1)
a-(2), b-(2)
None of the above
Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted error. Select the option that has the same error as in the given sentence.
The company has ordered some new equipments.
a. My mother was advised to take (1)/ two spoonsful (2)/ of medicine three times a day (3)/ no error (4).
b. The police have received (1)/ important informations (2)/ that can help them solve the murder case (3)/ no error (4).
a-(2), b-(2)
a-(1), b-(1)
a-(4), b-(4)
a-(3), b-(3)
None of the above