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Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Speaker can not vote in the first instance but he can exercise a casting vote in the case of equality of votes.
Statement II: The absence of a vote in the first instance will make the position of the Speaker impartial.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
The Speaker will not vote in the first instance but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of equality of votes. Hence Statement I is correct. • The absence of a vote in the first instance will make the position of the Speaker impartial as in England, and the casting vote is given to him only to resolve a deadlock. Statement II is correct and is the correct explanation of Statement I. • The Speaker will have the final power to maintain order within the House of the People and to interpret its Rules of Procedure.
In the absence of a quorum, it will be the duty of the Speaker to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.
By: Parvesh Mehta ProfileResourcesReport error
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