In a constituency, 60% of the voters are males and the rest are females. 40% of the males are illiterate and 25% of the females
are literate. By what percentage is the number of illiterate males more than that of literate females?
This questions was previously asked in
SSC MTS 7th October 2021 Shift-3
Explanation:
- Total voters: 100% of the constituency.
- Male voters: 60% of voters.
- Female voters: Remaining 40% of voters.
- Illiterate males: 40% of male voters.
- Literate females: 25% of female voters.
Let's calculate the numbers for each group:
- Illiterate males: 60% of voters are males, and out of that, 40% are illiterate.
- Illiterate males = 0.6 * 0.4 = 0.24 or 24% of the total voters.
- Literate females: 40% of voters are females, and out of that, 25% are literate.
- Literate females = 0.4 * 0.25 = 0.10 or 10% of the total voters.
Comparing the two:
- The number of illiterate males (24%) is greater than the number of literate females (10%).
- Percentage difference:
- ((24% - 10%) / 10%) * 100% = 140%
- The correct option is:
- Option 3: 140%
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By: santosh