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The marked price of every item being sold by a wholesaler was Rs300. The wholesaler was offering a stock-clearance sale under
which, for every three items paid for, one item was being given free. In addition to this, a further 10% discount on the amount
payable on the ‘Buy 3, Get 1 free’ scheme price was being offered to anyone making purchases worth more than Rs10,000.
Ramesh made purchases for which this amount payable was Rs18,000. What was the effective percentage discount that was
offered to Ramesh during this transaction?
32%
31.5%
32.5%
32.75%
- The marked price of each item is Rs 300. For every three items bought, one is free, which means you get 4 items for the price of 3.
- If Ramesh paid Rs 18,000 post-discount, let's calculate:
- First, for every 4 items, he pays for 3, so he effectively buys 4 items at the price of 3.
- Without any offers, 4 items would be Rs 1,200 (4 x Rs 300).
- With the scheme, he buys 4 items for Rs 900 (3 x Rs 300).
- Hence, the effective per item price becomes Rs 900/4 = Rs 225.
- Ramesh's actual buying price without offers = Rs 18,000 / (0.90) = Rs 20,000 (since he got an extra 10% discount with his purchase higher than Rs 10,000).
- Total items purchased at scheme price = Rs 20,000 / Rs 225 = approximately 88.89 items or 89 items.
- Without any concession, 89 items would have cost = Rs 26,700 (89 x Rs 300).
- Effective discount = \( (\text{Marked Price} - \text{Amount Paid}) / \text{Marked Price} \times 100 \% \).
- Calculated effective discount = ((Rs 26,700 - Rs 18,000) / Rs 26,700) x 100% = ~32.584, which rounds to 32.5%.
- Correct Answer: Option 3 – 32.5%.
By: santosh ProfileResourcesReport error
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