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Consider the following statements regarding the monetarist view of Cost-Push inflation:
I. For monetarists, ‘cost-push’ is not a truly independent theory of inflation—it has to be financed by some extra money.
II. The extra money is created by the government via wage revision, public borrowing, printing of currency, etc.
III. A price rise does not get automatically reciprocated by consumers’ purchasing.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Only I
Only II
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
For monetarists, ‘cost-push’ is not a truly independent theory of inflation—it has to be financed by some extra money (which is created by the government via wage revision, public borrowing, printing of currency, etc.). A price rise does not get automatically reciprocated by consumers’ purchasing.
Basically, people must have got some extra purchasing power created that’s why they start purchasing at higher prices also. If this has not been the reason, people would have cut-down their consumption (i.e. overall demand) to the level of their purchasing capacity and the aggregate demand of goods would have gone down. But this does not happen. It means the every cost-push inflation is a result of excessive creation of money—increasing money flow or money supply.
By: Yachna ProfileResourcesReport error
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