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Which of the following is true?
The misappropriation must be of movable property only
Dishonest misappropriation for a time being only is not misappropriation under section 403 of IPC
For constituting the offence of dishonest misappropriation of property, property appropriated need not be owned by somebody
Both (a) and (c)
403. Dishonest misappropriation of property.
403. Dishonest misappropriation of property. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Explanation IA dishonest misappropriation for a time only is a misappropriation with the meaning of this section.
Explanation 2- A person who finds property not in the possession of any other person, and takes such property for the purpose of protecting if for, or of restoring it to, the owner does not take or misappropriate it dishonestly, and is not guilty of an offence; but he is guilty of the offence above defined, if he appropriates it to his own use, when he knows or has the means of discovering the owner, or before he has used reasonable means to discover and give notice to the owner and has kept the property a reasonable time to enable the owner to claim it. What are reasonable means or what is a reasonable time in such a case, is a question of fact. It is not necessary that the finder should know who is the owner of the property, or that any particular person is the owner of it; it is sufficient if, at the time of appropriating it, he does not believe it to be his own property, or in good faith believe that the real owner cannot be found.
By: Parvesh Mehta ProfileResourcesReport error
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