Which of the following is true with respect to sale by a mercantile agent ........

Sale of Goods Act (SoGA) 1932 Performance of contract of sale

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Which of the following is true with respect to sale by a mercantile agent?

The mercantile agent need not be in possession of goods at the time of sale.

No consent of the owner is required for the possession of goods by the mercantile agent

The mercantile agent must be acting in the course of employment

All of the above

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Explanation:

Section 27 of Sale of Goods Act -
27. Sale by person not the owner. Subject to the provisions of this Act and of any other law for the time being in force, where goods are sold by a person who is not the owner thereof and who does not sell them under the authority or with the consent of the owner, the buyer acquires no better title to the goods than the seller had, unless the owner of the goods is by conduct precluded from denying the seller’s authority to sell: Provided that, where a mercantile agent is, with the consent of the owner, in possession of the goods or of a document of title to the goods, any sale made by him, when acting in the ordinary course of business of a mercantile agent, shall be as valid as if he were expressly authorised by the owner of the goods to make the same, provided that the buyer act is good faith and has not at the time of the contract of sale notice that the seller has not authority to sell.