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Which of the following is true?
The misappropriation must be of movable property only
Dishonest misappropriation for a time being only is not misappropriation under section 403 of IPC
For constituting the offence of dishonest misappropriation of property, property appropriated need not be owned by somebody
Both (a) and (c)
403. Dishonest misappropriation of property. It is not necessary that the finder should know who is the owner of the property, or that any particular person is the owner of it; it is sufficient if , at the time of appropriating it, he does not believe it to be his own property , or in good faith believing that the real owner cannot be found.
By: santosh ProfileResourcesReport error
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