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Which one of the following statements is correct when ‘A’ agrees to let her daughter for hire to B for concubinage ?
The agreement is void because it is immoral
The agreement is void because the consent of the daugher has not been obtained.
The agreement is valid because there is free consent of the contracting parties.
The agreement is voidable at the instance of A.
By: Parvesh Mehta ProfileResourcesReport error
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