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Principle: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person. without that person?s consent. In order to the committing of any offence. or intending by the use of such force to cause. Or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury. fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used. is said to use criminal force to that other.
Facts: ‘Z’ is riding in a palanquin. ‘A’, intending to rob ‘Z’ seizes the pole and stops the palanquin. Here ‘A’ has caused cessation of motion to ‘Z’ and ‘A’ has done this by his own bodily power.
‘A’ has used criminal force to ‘Z’
‘A’ has no intention to use ctiminal force to ‘Z’
‘A’ has used force with the consent of ‘Z’
None of the above is correct
As the palanquin was halted by A’s own bodily strength in order to rob Z. As per the principle the employment of such force in order to commit an offence constitutes criminal use of force. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
By: SANAT DATT BHARDWAJ ProfileResourcesReport error
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