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As per Classical Economic thought
Assertion (A): Markets, even if left free, always require government intervention.
Reason (R): Buyers and sellers acting in their self-interest fail to coordinate with each other. In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Both A and R are incorrect.
Classical thought is also known as the non-interventionist school. As per them, markets function best without government interference. Classical economists observe that markets generally regulate themselves, when free of coercion. Adam Smith referred to this as a metaphorical "invisible hand," which moves markets toward their natural equilibrium. In contrast to classical economics, Keynesian economics supports policies such as government intervention, deficit spending, control of the money supply, and a progressive income tax to counter recession and income inequality. Most classical economists reject these ideas. They assert that state intervention makes situations of economic slowdown worse.
By: Pradeep Kumar ProfileResourcesReport error
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