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Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in Article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.
Codes:
1 only.
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None is correct
By: Abhipedia ProfileResourcesReport error
Pooja Rani Mittal
please see and explain why the second option is not correct
Navneet Kaur
Ceding a territory would be different from settling a boundary dispute as per SC Judgment from 1969. Boundary can be settled by executive action only and doesn’t need constitutional amendment. So 2 only should be the correct answer.
Nitish Kumar
In Laxmikanth Book, Page No.-- 5.3 there is statement that says " SC in 1969 ruled that, settlement of boundary dispute between Indian and Any another country does not require a constitutional amendment but can be done by Executive Action "
Rectified
Parveen Bansal
corrected
Ashesh Bhardwaj
Wrong option is showed as correct
sumit
please check
Shweta Maini
Second statement is correct as per Laxmikant . In 100 amendment net area was ceded to Bangladesh , hence the amendment plz clarify
sherry
Option 2 settlement of boundary dispute does not require constitutional amendments it can be done by executive action as long as does not involve cession of territory to foreign country .As was case of 100th land boundary agreement where boundary changes were involved for schedule 1 hence amendment.
But in case of 100th amendment territory was ceded in order to resolve dispute hence the amendment
2nd is correct,
Yuvraj singh bedi
sc ruled that,sttlment of boundary dispute btwn inida and other country do no require CAA
Kindly refer the source of content
Vikas Rathore
100th constitutional ammendement is contradictory to second statement being right so option has to be none of theabove please rectify
Manav Singh
amendment requires for settle boundary dispute ... 100th amendment
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