Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable... Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure,

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.

2. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc, reinforces power.

3. Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?